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What old Greek manuscript has the KJV reading of 1J 5:7? None.
So its not a dogmatic question "which reading is more comfortable for the doctrine", but its a textual question "was the reading originally there?"
Modern translations do not have the KJV reading of the verse because this reading cannot be found in manuscripts. Thats all. It was added by the Roman Catholic Church in the middle ages from the Latin Vulgate.
And even though the addition sounds nice, its simply not original and therefore should not be used as an evidence in a theological debate, anyway. Nobody cares you have it in your medieval Bible print, the verse is not in manuscripts and therefore is not authoritative.
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