So when God said ...Yes, human ones, because the Scriptures were written by people.
-CryptoLutheran
So when God said ...
30:5 Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him.
30:6 Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar. Proverbs
... He was talking about "people", not actual "words"?
And when God speaks He uses "words"....What?
In Proverb 30:5-6 Agur is writing about the truthfulness and assurance of God; what God says is true and trustworthy.
-CryptoLutheran
The saddest part of a statement like that is that no one alive speaks any of the ancient languages the original Biblical manuscripts were written in.... so, none of us really knows how "accurate" any of the translations are.I fully agree with you but you will find it is the most accurate version.
I hate to tell you this, but Greek has been preserved throughout the ages. Just one group (for example) is the Greek Orthodox Church. They have been using the Byzantine text throughout history.The saddest part of a statement like that is that no one alive speaks any of the ancient languages the original Biblical manuscripts were written in.... so, none of us really knows how "accurate" any of the translations are.
I'm sure they probably honestly THINK they have truly preserved the language, but I think we all know better than that.I hate to tell you this, but Greek has been preserved throughout the ages. Just one group (for example) is the Greek Orthodox Church. They have been using the Byzantine text throughout history.
And when God speaks He uses "words".
30:5 Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him.30:6 Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar. Proverbs
When God speaks (words) every one of the words He speaks is pure.
That is why we call the Bible "Scripture", because the Bible in its entirety is both the "word of God" singular; and the "words" (plural) of God, because He said "words", not just "a" word.
The saddest part of a statement like that is that no one alive speaks any of the ancient languages the original Biblical manuscripts were written in.... so, none of us really knows how "accurate" any of the translations are.
I disagree.The Greek word (in all Greek texts) is ἄρτιος (artios). It does not occur elsewhere in the NT, but elsewhere in Greek literature it means something like "exactly suitable for the purpose."
Probably the best translations of 2 Timothy 3:17 are the NIV (so that the servant of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work) and perhaps the NAB (so that one who belongs to God may be competent, equipped for every good work).
Not so much "my" interpretation, but the diluting of the message God has brought forth in the KJV of the bible.The Greek word translated as "perfect" means "complete", which is also one of the definitions for the English word "perfect".
This is apparently a case where you are bothered by other translations because they challenge your particular interpretation of how an English word is being used.
I disagree.
Which phrase do you think makes the devil most angry..."thoroughly equipped", "competent", or "perfect", in regard to Christianity?
Not so much "my" interpretation, but the diluting of the message God has brought forth in the KJV of the bible.
Not so much "my" interpretation, but the diluting of the message God has brought forth in the KJV of the bible.
I disagree.
Which phrase do you think makes the devil most angry..."thoroughly equipped", "competent", or "perfect", in regard to Christianity?
I find that those who use the first two phrases also fight against the idea of the perfection of those reborn from God's seed.
As you are unwilling to answer my question, I will wait for your answer before answering your question.And do you have any knowledge of Greek to back up your disagreement?
And the devil rejoices!As I said on that verse (2 Timothy 3:17), the Greek word (in all Greek texts) is ἄρτιος (artios). It does not occur elsewhere in the NT, but elsewhere in Greek literature it means something like "exactly suitable for the purpose." It does not mean "perfect."
So the verse actually says..."That the man of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work, thoroughly furnished unto all good works."Probably the best translations of 2 Timothy 3:17 are the NIV (so that the servant of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work) and perhaps the NAB (so that one who belongs to God may be competent, equipped for every good work).
I heartily agree.The KJV is not the standard by which we judge other English translations let alone the Greek and Hebrew.
It was certainly effective in that purpose for me and my future salvation.Since God didn't bring forth His message "in the KJV of the Bible" then this is an altogether moot point.
-CryptoLutheran
If you need to change the words to suit your theology it may indicate the words of God are not what you seek to bolster that theology.I doubt anyone here has spoken to the devil to ask him.
Translation: Your particular interpretations and beliefs are being challenged, and you don't like that.
If taking what Scripture says seriously is a threat to your theology, then the problem is your theology.
-CryptoLutheran