The John 3:16 paraphrase challenge

Epiphoskei

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It is my contention that John 3:16 is perfectly correct in modern English Bibles, but that it has come to be interpreted otherwise than what the English text means for two reasons. First, vernacular English no longer uses words quite the same way that the more formal, slightly antiquated language of most Bible translations uses them. Hence, objections over "so." Second, many have heard John 3:16 repeatedly quoted in arguments about free will and opportunity and the extent of the atonement et cetera et cetera, the repeated exposure causing words like "may" and "whoever" to be filled with their currency in Arminian arguments even though they don't have that meaning within the syntax of the verse proper.

So I'm issuing a basic challenge here. Switch the words in John 3:16 for words which you consider to have roughly equal meaning. Maintain sentence structure - don't rip the clauses apart and hand back what you consider the gist of the verse to be - but switch out words and phrases for what you understand to be something of equivalencies.

Anyone with the greater of four courses or sixteen credit hours* of college Greek on their transcripts may declare their level of completed coursework and proceed to score paraphrases based on whether that understanding could arise as easily from the Greek as from the English. This standard has been selected because two years of classes are generally sufficient to work through an introductory grammar and the basics of syntax. (Mounce and Wallace in my case) Scoring should come with some explanation of the rationale behind the score. Paraphrases which have already been scored may be scored and explained again if you disagree with another scorer.

For the purposes of this thread, those with insufficient levels of coursework are asked to refrain from critiquing another's paraphrase.


I'll start by declaring my own level of completed coursework: six classes, twenty credit hours.

---
*If anyone comes from an educational system which doesn't count credits in the manner most American universities do, a standard equivalent for four semester-long courses will be accepted.
 

Epiphoskei

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This thread does not seem to be drawing much attention. People were more than happy to use this verse back when they weren't required to watch the intricacies of grammar last week.

Coming as no surprise to anyone, Skala has a textbook perfect paraphrase. And the only paraphrase so far.
 
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travelah

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This thread does not seem to be drawing much attention. People were more than happy to use this verse back when they weren't required to watch the intricacies of grammar last week.

Coming as no surprise to anyone, Skala has a textbook perfect paraphrase. And the only paraphrase so far.

You killed any potential discussion with your qualifications. I fall shy of your requirement so I will not participate.
 
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travelah

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My qualification that only people who know Greek teach Greek? How unreasonably onerous.

Marvelous! Enjoy your dead thread and kudos to the two Calvinists who know nothing of Greek yet subscribe to anything you might tell them! Incidentally, most students of Greek are particularly unqualified to teach it.
 
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reformed ttL

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Marvelous! Enjoy your dead thread and kudos to the two Calvinists who know nothing of Greek yet subscribe to anything you might tell them! Incidentally, most students of Greek are particularly unqualified to teach it.
really?? and you are qualified to make a statement like that?
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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Subscribing. Definitely not critiquing. :D
Me too....

One thing I noticed when looking up the greek texts for that verse, is how the T-R differs from that of the W-H and Alexandrian texts by adding "auto", [tho that is just a minor variation].
Will study on this further

Greek New Testament - Parallel Greek New Testament by John Hurt

John 3:16

Stephens 1550 Textus Receptus

outwV gar hgaphsen o qeoV ton kosmon wste ton uion autou ton monogenh edwken ina paV o pisteuwn eiV auton mh apolhtai all ech zwhn aiwnion

Alexandrian

outwV gar hgaphsen o qeoV ton kosmon wste ton uion ton monogenh edwken ina paV o pisteuwn eiV auton mh apolhtai all ech zwhn aiwnion

Hort and Westcott

outwV gar hgaphsen o qeoV ton kosmon wste ton uion ton monogenh edwken ina paV o pisteuwn eiV auton mh apolhtai all ech zwhn aiwnion

For the word for word translation, I recommend looking at it thru this Interlinear [can't remember which greek text it uses, but I think it is the W-H/Alexandrian texts]:

Scripture4All - Greek/Hebrew interlinear Bible software




.
 
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Reformationist

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It is my contention that John 3:16 is perfectly correct in modern English Bibles, but that it has come to be interpreted otherwise than what the English text means for two reasons. First, vernacular English no longer uses words quite the same way that the more formal, slightly antiquated language of most Bible translations uses them. Hence, objections over "so." Second, many have heard John 3:16 repeatedly quoted in arguments about free will and opportunity and the extent of the atonement et cetera et cetera, the repeated exposure causing words like "may" and "whoever" to be filled with their currency in Arminian arguments even though they don't have that meaning within the syntax of the verse proper.

So I'm issuing a basic challenge here. Switch the words in John 3:16 for words which you consider to have roughly equal meaning. Maintain sentence structure - don't rip the clauses apart and hand back what you consider the gist of the verse to be - but switch out words and phrases for what you understand to be something of equivalencies.

Anyone with the greater of four courses or sixteen credit hours* of college Greek on their transcripts may declare their level of completed coursework and proceed to score paraphrases based on whether that understanding could arise as easily from the Greek as from the English. This standard has been selected because two years of classes are generally sufficient to work through an introductory grammar and the basics of syntax. (Mounce and Wallace in my case) Scoring should come with some explanation of the rationale behind the score. Paraphrases which have already been scored may be scored and explained again if you disagree with another scorer.

For the purposes of this thread, those with insufficient levels of coursework are asked to refrain from critiquing another's paraphrase.

I'll start by declaring my own level of completed coursework: six classes, twenty credit hours.

---
*If anyone comes from an educational system which doesn't count credits in the manner most American universities do, a standard equivalent for four semester-long courses will be accepted.

There seems to be a misunderstanding, at least on the part of one respondent, that you are saying that only those schooled in Greek should respond. It does not seem that that is what you are requesting. It seems that you are simply asking that those who address the Greek of the passage please indicate the basis for their Greek understanding. Additionally, if one wishes to address another's Greek rendering, that they, too, be schooled in the Greek else leave it to those that are.

As I am not schooled in Greek, I will simply post my understanding of the verse as to how it should be rendered:

John 3:16
God gave His Son for the purpose that every believing one should not perish, but that every believing one should have everlasting life.

Hope that fits within the parameters of your OP. I also hope you know that there are far more than just "two Calvinists" on this MB that are eager to participate in your threads. They are always rational, thoughtful, and engaging, or maybe that's just you. :p

Take care,
God bless
 
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