Defensor Christi
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- Oct 25, 2012
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standing up said:You're simply wrong. Being unclean requires a sin offering.
Lev. 15:30 And the priest shall offer the one for a sin offering, and the other for a burnt offering; and the priest shall make an atonement for her before the LORD for the issue of her uncleanness.
It wasn't giving birth, it was the giving of the accompanying blood.
I understand you can't agree with scripture's views, but we have stumbled upon the reason Tradition (from Protoevangelium of James to Council) teaches there was no issue of blood (no afterbirth) at Christ's birth.
Who/what requires it? Read some commentaries....
The Rationale of the Purity Laws. The central lesson conveyed by this system is that God is holy but human beings are contaminated. Everyone by biology inevitably contracted uncleanness from time to time; therefore, everyone in this fallen world must be purified to approach a holy God. Although "uncleanness" cannot be equated with "sin, " since factors beyond human control could cause a person to be unclean, nonetheless, there is a strong analogy between "uncleanness" and "sin."
Clean, Unclean - Baker's Evangelical Dictionary of Biblical Theology Online
If the Blessed Virgin was with sin, so was the child...
6-8. the days of her purifying--Though the occasion was of a festive character, yet the sacrifices appointed were not a peace offering, but a burnt offering and sin offering, in order to impress the mind of the parent with recollections of the origin of sin, and that the child inherited a fallen and sinful nature. The offerings were to be presented the day after the period of her separation had ended--that is, forty-first for a boy, eighty-first for a girl.
https://www.blueletterbible.org/Comm/jfb/Lev/Lev_012.cfm?a=102006
Is that what you are saying? The Lord was with sin?
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