Not agreeing here with Elman but why must Calvinists always eisegete this passage? Psalm 51:5 says nothing of David being iniquitous at birth the passage speaks of his parents iniquity only, and the Hebrew word here "conceived" (yacham - to make or be hot, to mate) these are two totally different things. This is just saying their union was of lust not love.
I know you have been convinced of this incorrect eisegesis (as I was), but it only speaks to the extent to which early Calvinist theologians went to make the scriptures appear to say something they do not (like how they misinterpret and misapply the idea of God being Sovereign). IMO such chicanary with the word to try and beguile the less informed (though convincing those already convinced) shows a lack of respect for the plenary communication of the Holy Spirit through His word.
I suggest as a brother in Christ that you not use this passage to prove a point it does not address or confirm. People who know the word (other than those so persuaded) know better...why did they even stoop to such tricks (though I sincerely know this was not your intent as you believe the preconceived conclusion)? I find it sad and lacking intellectual integrity (a need in the soul to use false evidence to support a case weak at best if one considers the whole of the word on the matter).
And also the ESV changes the meaning of the word Chuwl (writhing and twsiting) to "brought forth". Now yes it can be speaking of David being birthed as in travailing (again speaking of the mother not him) but more correctly it addresses the action of their lust (now do not say that I am claiming sex between married people is iniquitous, evil, bad, or dirty because I am not...lust is selfish and pleasure oriented only...we all know what that is like, as opposed to compassionately loving one another to meet the one another's need and share one another in intimacy).
In His love
Paul
I don't agree with your interpretation of this verse. If you look at the context the verse is obviously referring to David and not his parents:
[TO THE CHOIRMASTER. A PSALM OF DAVID, WHEN NATHAN THE PROPHET WENT TO HIM, AFTER HE HAD GONE IN TO BATHSHEBA.]
[51:1] Have mercy on me, O God,
according to your steadfast love;
according to your abundant mercy
blot out my transgressions.
[2] Wash me thoroughly from my iniquity,
and cleanse me from my sin!
[3] For I know my transgressions,
and my sin is ever before me.
[4] Against you, you only, have I sinned
and done what is evil in your sight,
so that you may be justified in your words
and blameless in your judgment.
[5]
Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity,
and in sin did my mother conceive me.
[6] Behold, you delight in truth in the inward being,
and you teach me wisdom in the secret heart.
(Psalm 51:1-6 ESV)
If the meaning of verse 5 is that David was conceived in the heat of lust what has this got to do with the context which is talking of David being a sinful person?
Ed