[/list]Answers to above:
1. True
2. Omnipotence means you can do what YOU want. God wanted a creation who would WANT Him...NOT one that HAD to love Him but WANTED to love Him...NOT one that HAD to follow Him but WANTED to follow Him. God knew the risks and He took them because He knew that some would follow Him.
Then your reconcile the problem of evil by rejecting the omnibenevolence of God. Simple enough.
Question: why does God want us to love him?
See above. An omnibenevolence de dicto necessarily desires the absence of evil. You reject the notion that God has such a desire, and hence reject the omnibenevolence of God.
5. False - Pure speculation from a mortal being who has not taken the time to learn about the omnipotent God that created him and therefore does not understand Him.
On the contrary, it directly follows from my proof. That is, to reject my conclusion requires you to show a fallacy in my logic, and/or demonstrate that at least one of my premises is unsound (the latter of which you can't do, since they are de dicto necessarily true).
That is, (5) is follows directly from (1) and (4), and so you must refute (1) and/or (4) before you can justify your rejection of (5).
Counter-intuitivity is not a detriment to a logical proof.
On the contrary, evil still exists: I myself am suffering from a pain in my left shoulder blade (not the most objectionable of evils, but nevertheless...).
So why does God allow evil to exist?
Is he incapable of removing said evil?
Or does he not want to remove said evil?
From your above words, it is clear that you do not contend that God want to remove evil from the world, if only because it is secondary to the potential existance of entities who choose to love God.
That is, you do not believe God to be omnibenevolent insofar as you do not believe he does wants the absence of suffering.