AMR
Presbyterian (PCA) - Bona Fide Reformed
- Jun 19, 2009
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I just wish inerrancy was a term never used. It usually results in the following sort of retorts:
Inerrant means "free from error." Are you willing to say that any man-written document is completely free from error? We don't even believe that the KJV is free from error. Inerrancy only extends to the original autographs of Scripture.
To which I would answer:
Infallibility means without error in the sense of what is being conveyed (Luke 1:1-4; John 17:17; 2 Peter 1:16). Scripture attests to the plain fact that it cannot err. I need not try to prove what is attested. God has stated that He will preserve His special revelation, the Bible. I believe that and need not spend time proving the same. Infallibility is the higher standard over notions of inerrancy. Moreover, I couple God's providence to the church in preserving manuscripts, and do not believe that God's providence works outside those boundaries.
We need to distinguish between the proposition above and the way it is stated. According to orthodox Reformed thought, the translations of Scripture made by men of the reformed profession have not been found to err with regard to the sense of Scripture, even though there may be better ways of rendering words and phrases. In respect of words and manner of speech, a translation may be defective, when it is not erroneous as to the sense. The same applies to one's confession of faith.
Or, this sort of statement:
Inerrancy extends only to the Originals, and not to any Translations.
Again, my answer:
Holy Scripture does not teach this. Uninspired, errant men teach this. Our Lord and His apostles referred to copies and translations of holy Scripture when they quoted the Old Testament. They relied on the words of these copies and translations as being inspired and infallible.
Consider that such a statement is contrary to the New Testament witness. Timothy was not raised with the original autograph mss., and yet the apostle Paul explicitly ascribed the quality of theopneustos to the Scriptures which Timothy read. Furthermore, we have Greek translations of Hebrew Scriptures quoted in the New Testament accompanied with the assertion that these are the words of the Holy Spirit.
The doctrine of an inspired and infallible word can only be received by anyone today through copies, and only by those who do not know the original languages through translations. Their faith in holy Scripture presupposes what they have is the inspired and infallible word of God.
We know the the originals do not err because God is the author of them.
My answer:
How do you know that, if not from copies? You must have already decided on an "inerrant" text in order to deduce a statement about the originals which does not err from your perspective.
One must have examined the copies and found them to be with error in order to conclude that they are not inerrant. The a priori condition of inerrancy is then applied to an original which simply cannot be examined, and can only be known through the copies. From where does this a priori condition arise if not from the Scriptures themselves? It could only be a rationalist dogma.
Since the doctrine of inerrency is a result of interacting with liberals, how would you challenge someone who claims infallibility but allows for errors in, say, facts of history?
My answer:
I would simply maintain that infallibility extends to the facts of history, but also be careful to emphasize that fallible men are interpreting Scripture.
Scripture is given to be the rule of faith and life, so commitment to an infallible Word should center on what the Scriptures "principally" teach.
For Scripture to be self-attesting one must have a Scripture that attests to itself. In the absence of an inerrant Scripture there can be no inerrant attestation. Inerrant originals must then take their place alongside Plato's ideal forms. Rationalism! Sigh.
In the world of modern textual criticism things have gone amiss. I am not opposed to textual criticism. I embrace it when done aright. Reverent and presuppositional textual criticism involves recognizing that the Bible is not a book like any other, whose preservation and extant copies must be viewed in the light of what the Bible says about itself and its preservation. We know that the original autographs were without error because the Bible tells us so, not because we can prove it empirically; and that proper type of textual criticism involves the believing interpretation of God's providence regarding the preservation of the MSS.
My bottom line:
The two main problems with "inerrancy" are,
1. Using the term instead of "infallibility." The reason why Scripture does not err is because it cannot err. Why does one choose to ignore this fundamental point? To merely say that the Scriptures do not err opens the door to critical investigation of the subject.
2. The tying of "inerrancy" to so-called "originals" only. How can any one know that the originals did not err? The only way of knowing they are inerrant is by means of copies. If these copies are supposed to err there is no basis for saying the originals do not err.
To complain that "infallible" does not make a strong statement in light of liberal affirmations is to give authority to liberals where they do not have any. On that basis we would have to arrive at new words for the whole system of theology?
Best that we use infallible and avoid inerrant.
If you have the time, see Letis' article in the following, in particular the concluding paragraph:
https://static1.squarespace.com/stat...4+No+4.pdf
Inerrant means "free from error." Are you willing to say that any man-written document is completely free from error? We don't even believe that the KJV is free from error. Inerrancy only extends to the original autographs of Scripture.
To which I would answer:
Infallibility means without error in the sense of what is being conveyed (Luke 1:1-4; John 17:17; 2 Peter 1:16). Scripture attests to the plain fact that it cannot err. I need not try to prove what is attested. God has stated that He will preserve His special revelation, the Bible. I believe that and need not spend time proving the same. Infallibility is the higher standard over notions of inerrancy. Moreover, I couple God's providence to the church in preserving manuscripts, and do not believe that God's providence works outside those boundaries.
We need to distinguish between the proposition above and the way it is stated. According to orthodox Reformed thought, the translations of Scripture made by men of the reformed profession have not been found to err with regard to the sense of Scripture, even though there may be better ways of rendering words and phrases. In respect of words and manner of speech, a translation may be defective, when it is not erroneous as to the sense. The same applies to one's confession of faith.
Or, this sort of statement:
Inerrancy extends only to the Originals, and not to any Translations.
Again, my answer:
Holy Scripture does not teach this. Uninspired, errant men teach this. Our Lord and His apostles referred to copies and translations of holy Scripture when they quoted the Old Testament. They relied on the words of these copies and translations as being inspired and infallible.
Consider that such a statement is contrary to the New Testament witness. Timothy was not raised with the original autograph mss., and yet the apostle Paul explicitly ascribed the quality of theopneustos to the Scriptures which Timothy read. Furthermore, we have Greek translations of Hebrew Scriptures quoted in the New Testament accompanied with the assertion that these are the words of the Holy Spirit.
The doctrine of an inspired and infallible word can only be received by anyone today through copies, and only by those who do not know the original languages through translations. Their faith in holy Scripture presupposes what they have is the inspired and infallible word of God.
We know the the originals do not err because God is the author of them.
My answer:
How do you know that, if not from copies? You must have already decided on an "inerrant" text in order to deduce a statement about the originals which does not err from your perspective.
One must have examined the copies and found them to be with error in order to conclude that they are not inerrant. The a priori condition of inerrancy is then applied to an original which simply cannot be examined, and can only be known through the copies. From where does this a priori condition arise if not from the Scriptures themselves? It could only be a rationalist dogma.
Since the doctrine of inerrency is a result of interacting with liberals, how would you challenge someone who claims infallibility but allows for errors in, say, facts of history?
My answer:
I would simply maintain that infallibility extends to the facts of history, but also be careful to emphasize that fallible men are interpreting Scripture.
Scripture is given to be the rule of faith and life, so commitment to an infallible Word should center on what the Scriptures "principally" teach.
For Scripture to be self-attesting one must have a Scripture that attests to itself. In the absence of an inerrant Scripture there can be no inerrant attestation. Inerrant originals must then take their place alongside Plato's ideal forms. Rationalism! Sigh.
In the world of modern textual criticism things have gone amiss. I am not opposed to textual criticism. I embrace it when done aright. Reverent and presuppositional textual criticism involves recognizing that the Bible is not a book like any other, whose preservation and extant copies must be viewed in the light of what the Bible says about itself and its preservation. We know that the original autographs were without error because the Bible tells us so, not because we can prove it empirically; and that proper type of textual criticism involves the believing interpretation of God's providence regarding the preservation of the MSS.
My bottom line:
The two main problems with "inerrancy" are,
1. Using the term instead of "infallibility." The reason why Scripture does not err is because it cannot err. Why does one choose to ignore this fundamental point? To merely say that the Scriptures do not err opens the door to critical investigation of the subject.
2. The tying of "inerrancy" to so-called "originals" only. How can any one know that the originals did not err? The only way of knowing they are inerrant is by means of copies. If these copies are supposed to err there is no basis for saying the originals do not err.
To complain that "infallible" does not make a strong statement in light of liberal affirmations is to give authority to liberals where they do not have any. On that basis we would have to arrive at new words for the whole system of theology?
Best that we use infallible and avoid inerrant.
If you have the time, see Letis' article in the following, in particular the concluding paragraph:
https://static1.squarespace.com/stat...4+No+4.pdf
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