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Rapture/Translation versus the 2nd Coming/to Establish Kingdom
1. Translation of all believers. 1. No translation at all.
2. Translated saints go to heaven. 2. Translated saints return to earth.
3. Earth not judged. 3. Earth judged & righteousness established.
4. Imminent, any-moment. 4. Follows definite predicted signless signs
including tribulation.
5. Not in the Old Testament. 5. Predicted often in Old Testament.
6. Believers only. 6. Affects all men.
7. Before the day of wrath. 7 Concluding the day of wrath.
8. No reference to Satan. 8. Satan bound.
9. Christ comes for His own. 9. Christ comes with His own.
10. He comes in the air. 10. He comes to the earth.
11. He claims His bride. 11 He comes with His bride.
12. Only His own see Him. 12 Every eye shall see Him.
13. Tribulation begins. 13 Millennial Kingdom begins.
John Walvoord concludes that these "contrasts should make it evident that the translation of the church is an event quite different in character and time from the return of the Lord to establish His kingdom, and confirms the conclusion that the translation takes place before the tribulation."
ADDITIONAL DIFFERENCES
Paul speaks of the rapture as a "mystery" [1 Cor. 15:51-54], that is a truth not revealed until its disclosure by the apostles (Col. 1:26), making it a separate event, while the second coming was predicted in the Old Testament [Dan. 12:1-3; Zech. 12:10; 14:4].
The movement for the believer at the rapture is from earth to heaven, in Jn.14:2-4 and 28, while it is from heaven to earth at the second advent, in Mt.24:30-31 and Rev.19:14. At the rapture, the Lord comes for his saints [1 Thess. 4:16], while at the second coming the Lord comes with His saints [1 Thess. 3:13]. At the rapture, the Lord comes only for believers, but His return to the earth will impact all people. The rapture is a translation event where the Lord takes believers "to the Father's house" in heaven [John 14:2-4 and 28], while at the second coming believers return from heaven to the earth [Matt. 24:30-31; Rev.19:14; Zech.14:4-5 and Jude 14]. Hindson says, "The different aspects of our Lord's return are clearly delineated in the scriptures themselves. The only real issue in the eschatological debate is the time interval between them."<<<
When does the rapture of the Church take place?
That was the exact purpose of Paul's second epistle to the Thessalonians, because they had received a forged letter as if it had come from Paul telling them the Day of the Lord had already come, and they were still on the earth, after Paul had taught them they would be caught up to be with the Lord in the clouds of the air, before the Day of the Lord begins. In this context, Paul has used the term, "Day of the Lord" to mean, the seven years of tribulation.
The key to the timing of the rapture of the Church is in 2 Thes.2:1-4 and 7-8, as recorded below:
"Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to Him [A direct reference to 1Thes.4:17] "...we who are still alive and are left will be CAUGHT UP TOGETHER WITH THEM IN THE CLOUDS TO MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR."], we ask you, brothers," Vs 1."not to become easily unsettled or alarmed by some prophecy, report or letter supposed to have come from us, saying that the Day of the Lord [The seven years of tribulation] has already come." Vs 2.
"Don't let anyone deceive you in any way, for that Day [The Day of the Lord/seven year tribulation] will not come until the "apostasia" [Greek term for "departure"/CAUGHT UP, from the original translation] occurs [first] and the man of lawlessness is revealed [The antichrist], the man doomed to destruction." Vs 3. [See added details below].
"He will oppose and will exalt himself over everything that is called God or is worshiped, so that he sets himself up in God's temple, proclaiming himself to be God." Vs 4.
In confirmation of verse 3. above is the following:
"For the secret power of lawlessness is already at work; but the one who now holds it back will continue to do so until he [The one body of Christ/His Church - as they will depart/CAUGHT UP in vs 3.] is taken out of the way."
A review of vs 3. in the issue pertaining to why our present day Bibles are using the terms "falling away," "apostasy" and "the rebellion," for the Greek term "apostasia," is IMO, due to alterations made to the KJV by the RCC, in both verses 2 and 3, to read, "Day of Christ," and "apostasy," respectively, to suit their theological belief and teachings of Amillennialism, which denies any rapture as well as the Millennial reign of Christ on the earth.
Changing "the Day of the Lord" to the "Day of Christ," as the translators of the KJV have done, changes the prophecy from a seven year period of time, which is in full confirmation of Dan.9:27, to a one day scene, of Jesus second coming, instead of the rapture Paul wrote about. Then in the alteration in the intended meaning of the Greek term, "apostasia," to one of its other meanings, completely altering the meaning again, from a rapture of the Church to a supposed apostasy of the Church. See the translation history of the term "apostasia" in vs 3, in the following:
The Rapture in 2 Thessalonians 2:3:
Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the apostasy [As altered in the KJV] comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction,
The original translation of 2 Thessalonians 2:3:
Verse 2 is: Day of the Lord, not Day of Christ [/b][As altered by the KJV]! The Day of the Lord begins in this instance with the Pre-trib rapture of the Church and never ends thereafter.
Verse 3. "Don't let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day will not come until the departure occurs [first] and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction."
2 Thessalonians 2:3 is speaking of the rapture. What do I mean? Some pretribulationists, like myself, think that the Greek noun apostasia, usually translated " apostasy," is a reference to the rapture and should be translated " departure." Thus, this passage would be saying that the day of the Lord will not come until the rapture comes before it. If apostasia is a reference to a physical departure, then 2 Thessalonians 2:3 is strong evidence for pretribulationism.
The Meaning of Apostasia and Discessio:
The Greek noun apostasia is only used twice in the New Testament. In addition to 2 Thessalonians 2:3, it occurs in Acts 21:21 where, speaking of Paul, it is said, " that you are teaching all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake (apostasia)Moses." The word is a Greek compound of apo " from" and istemi " stand." Thus, it has the core meaning of " away from" or " departure." The Liddell and Scott Greek Lexicon defines apostasia first as " defection, revolt;" then secondly as " departure, disappearance." [1] Gordon Lewis explains how the verb from which the noun apostasia is derived supports the basic meaning of departure in the following:
The verb may mean to remove spatially. There is little reason then to deny that the noun can mean such a spatial removal or departure. Since the noun is used only one other time in the New Testament of apostasy from Moses (Acts 21:21), we can hardly conclude that its Biblical meaning is necessarily determined. The verb is used fifteen times in the New Testament. Of these fifteen, only three have anything to do with a departure from the faith (Luke 8;13; 1 Tim. 4:1; Heb 3:12). The word is used for departing from iniquity (2 Tim. 2:19), from ungodly men(1 Tim. 6:5), from the temple (Luke 2:27), from the body (2 Cor. 12:8) , and from persons (Acts 12:10; Luke 4:13).[2]
" It is with full assurance of proper exegetical study and with complete confidence in the original languages," concludes Daniel Davey, " that the word meaning of apostasia is defined as departure." [3] Paul Lee Tan adds the following:
What precisely does Paul mean when he says that " the falling away" (2:3) must come before the tribulation? The definite article " the" denotes that this will be a definite event, an event distinct from the appearance of the Man of Sin. The Greek word for " falling away" , taken by itself, does not mean religious apostasy or defection. Neither does the word mean " to fall," as the Greeks have another word for that. [pipto, I fall; TDI] The best translation of the word is " to depart." The apostle Paul refers here to a definite event which he calls " the departure," and which will occur just before the start of the tribulation. This is the rapture of the church.
So the word has the core meaning of departure and it depends upon the context to determine whether it is used to mean physical departure or an abstract departure such as departure from the faith.
Translation History of apostasia and Discessio:
The first seven English translations of apostasia all rendered the noun as either " departure" or " departing." They are as follows: Wycliffe Bible (1384 A.D.); Tyndale Bible (1526 A.D.); Coverdale Bible (1535 A.D.); Cranmer Bible (1539 A.D.); Breeches Bible (1576 A.D.); Beza Bible (1583 A.D.); Geneva Bible (1608 A.D.) .[5] This supports the notion that the word truly means " departure." In fact, Jerome' s Latin translation known as the Vulgate from around the time of 325 A.D. renders apostasia with the " word discessio, meaning ' departure.'" Why was the King James Version the first to depart from the established translation of " departure" in 1611 A.D.?[/b]
Theodore Beza, the Swiss reformer was the first to transliterate apostasia and create a new word, rather than translate it as others had done. The translators of the King James Version were the first to introduce the new rendering of apostasia as " falling away." Most English translators have followed the KJV and Beza in departing from translating apostasia as " departure." No reason was ever given. [IMO and highly suspect, because of the RCC Amilliannial theology].
Quasar92
1. Translation of all believers. 1. No translation at all.
2. Translated saints go to heaven. 2. Translated saints return to earth.
3. Earth not judged. 3. Earth judged & righteousness established.
4. Imminent, any-moment. 4. Follows definite predicted signless signs
including tribulation.
5. Not in the Old Testament. 5. Predicted often in Old Testament.
6. Believers only. 6. Affects all men.
7. Before the day of wrath. 7 Concluding the day of wrath.
8. No reference to Satan. 8. Satan bound.
9. Christ comes for His own. 9. Christ comes with His own.
10. He comes in the air. 10. He comes to the earth.
11. He claims His bride. 11 He comes with His bride.
12. Only His own see Him. 12 Every eye shall see Him.
13. Tribulation begins. 13 Millennial Kingdom begins.
John Walvoord concludes that these "contrasts should make it evident that the translation of the church is an event quite different in character and time from the return of the Lord to establish His kingdom, and confirms the conclusion that the translation takes place before the tribulation."
ADDITIONAL DIFFERENCES
Paul speaks of the rapture as a "mystery" [1 Cor. 15:51-54], that is a truth not revealed until its disclosure by the apostles (Col. 1:26), making it a separate event, while the second coming was predicted in the Old Testament [Dan. 12:1-3; Zech. 12:10; 14:4].
The movement for the believer at the rapture is from earth to heaven, in Jn.14:2-4 and 28, while it is from heaven to earth at the second advent, in Mt.24:30-31 and Rev.19:14. At the rapture, the Lord comes for his saints [1 Thess. 4:16], while at the second coming the Lord comes with His saints [1 Thess. 3:13]. At the rapture, the Lord comes only for believers, but His return to the earth will impact all people. The rapture is a translation event where the Lord takes believers "to the Father's house" in heaven [John 14:2-4 and 28], while at the second coming believers return from heaven to the earth [Matt. 24:30-31; Rev.19:14; Zech.14:4-5 and Jude 14]. Hindson says, "The different aspects of our Lord's return are clearly delineated in the scriptures themselves. The only real issue in the eschatological debate is the time interval between them."<<<
When does the rapture of the Church take place?
That was the exact purpose of Paul's second epistle to the Thessalonians, because they had received a forged letter as if it had come from Paul telling them the Day of the Lord had already come, and they were still on the earth, after Paul had taught them they would be caught up to be with the Lord in the clouds of the air, before the Day of the Lord begins. In this context, Paul has used the term, "Day of the Lord" to mean, the seven years of tribulation.
The key to the timing of the rapture of the Church is in 2 Thes.2:1-4 and 7-8, as recorded below:
"Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to Him [A direct reference to 1Thes.4:17] "...we who are still alive and are left will be CAUGHT UP TOGETHER WITH THEM IN THE CLOUDS TO MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR."], we ask you, brothers," Vs 1."not to become easily unsettled or alarmed by some prophecy, report or letter supposed to have come from us, saying that the Day of the Lord [The seven years of tribulation] has already come." Vs 2.
"Don't let anyone deceive you in any way, for that Day [The Day of the Lord/seven year tribulation] will not come until the "apostasia" [Greek term for "departure"/CAUGHT UP, from the original translation] occurs [first] and the man of lawlessness is revealed [The antichrist], the man doomed to destruction." Vs 3. [See added details below].
"He will oppose and will exalt himself over everything that is called God or is worshiped, so that he sets himself up in God's temple, proclaiming himself to be God." Vs 4.
In confirmation of verse 3. above is the following:
"For the secret power of lawlessness is already at work; but the one who now holds it back will continue to do so until he [The one body of Christ/His Church - as they will depart/CAUGHT UP in vs 3.] is taken out of the way."
A review of vs 3. in the issue pertaining to why our present day Bibles are using the terms "falling away," "apostasy" and "the rebellion," for the Greek term "apostasia," is IMO, due to alterations made to the KJV by the RCC, in both verses 2 and 3, to read, "Day of Christ," and "apostasy," respectively, to suit their theological belief and teachings of Amillennialism, which denies any rapture as well as the Millennial reign of Christ on the earth.
Changing "the Day of the Lord" to the "Day of Christ," as the translators of the KJV have done, changes the prophecy from a seven year period of time, which is in full confirmation of Dan.9:27, to a one day scene, of Jesus second coming, instead of the rapture Paul wrote about. Then in the alteration in the intended meaning of the Greek term, "apostasia," to one of its other meanings, completely altering the meaning again, from a rapture of the Church to a supposed apostasy of the Church. See the translation history of the term "apostasia" in vs 3, in the following:
The Rapture in 2 Thessalonians 2:3:
Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the apostasy [As altered in the KJV] comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction,
The original translation of 2 Thessalonians 2:3:
Verse 2 is: Day of the Lord, not Day of Christ [/b][As altered by the KJV]! The Day of the Lord begins in this instance with the Pre-trib rapture of the Church and never ends thereafter.
Verse 3. "Don't let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day will not come until the departure occurs [first] and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction."
2 Thessalonians 2:3 is speaking of the rapture. What do I mean? Some pretribulationists, like myself, think that the Greek noun apostasia, usually translated " apostasy," is a reference to the rapture and should be translated " departure." Thus, this passage would be saying that the day of the Lord will not come until the rapture comes before it. If apostasia is a reference to a physical departure, then 2 Thessalonians 2:3 is strong evidence for pretribulationism.
The Meaning of Apostasia and Discessio:
The Greek noun apostasia is only used twice in the New Testament. In addition to 2 Thessalonians 2:3, it occurs in Acts 21:21 where, speaking of Paul, it is said, " that you are teaching all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake (apostasia)Moses." The word is a Greek compound of apo " from" and istemi " stand." Thus, it has the core meaning of " away from" or " departure." The Liddell and Scott Greek Lexicon defines apostasia first as " defection, revolt;" then secondly as " departure, disappearance." [1] Gordon Lewis explains how the verb from which the noun apostasia is derived supports the basic meaning of departure in the following:
The verb may mean to remove spatially. There is little reason then to deny that the noun can mean such a spatial removal or departure. Since the noun is used only one other time in the New Testament of apostasy from Moses (Acts 21:21), we can hardly conclude that its Biblical meaning is necessarily determined. The verb is used fifteen times in the New Testament. Of these fifteen, only three have anything to do with a departure from the faith (Luke 8;13; 1 Tim. 4:1; Heb 3:12). The word is used for departing from iniquity (2 Tim. 2:19), from ungodly men(1 Tim. 6:5), from the temple (Luke 2:27), from the body (2 Cor. 12:8) , and from persons (Acts 12:10; Luke 4:13).[2]
" It is with full assurance of proper exegetical study and with complete confidence in the original languages," concludes Daniel Davey, " that the word meaning of apostasia is defined as departure." [3] Paul Lee Tan adds the following:
What precisely does Paul mean when he says that " the falling away" (2:3) must come before the tribulation? The definite article " the" denotes that this will be a definite event, an event distinct from the appearance of the Man of Sin. The Greek word for " falling away" , taken by itself, does not mean religious apostasy or defection. Neither does the word mean " to fall," as the Greeks have another word for that. [pipto, I fall; TDI] The best translation of the word is " to depart." The apostle Paul refers here to a definite event which he calls " the departure," and which will occur just before the start of the tribulation. This is the rapture of the church.
So the word has the core meaning of departure and it depends upon the context to determine whether it is used to mean physical departure or an abstract departure such as departure from the faith.
Translation History of apostasia and Discessio:
The first seven English translations of apostasia all rendered the noun as either " departure" or " departing." They are as follows: Wycliffe Bible (1384 A.D.); Tyndale Bible (1526 A.D.); Coverdale Bible (1535 A.D.); Cranmer Bible (1539 A.D.); Breeches Bible (1576 A.D.); Beza Bible (1583 A.D.); Geneva Bible (1608 A.D.) .[5] This supports the notion that the word truly means " departure." In fact, Jerome' s Latin translation known as the Vulgate from around the time of 325 A.D. renders apostasia with the " word discessio, meaning ' departure.'" Why was the King James Version the first to depart from the established translation of " departure" in 1611 A.D.?[/b]
Theodore Beza, the Swiss reformer was the first to transliterate apostasia and create a new word, rather than translate it as others had done. The translators of the King James Version were the first to introduce the new rendering of apostasia as " falling away." Most English translators have followed the KJV and Beza in departing from translating apostasia as " departure." No reason was ever given. [IMO and highly suspect, because of the RCC Amilliannial theology].
Quasar92