It was given to make you see something you are overlooking with what seems to be a bad case of theological tunnel vision. The complete Bible is a context in itself. Its not consisting of fragmented isolated parts like you seem to take pleasure in attempting to do. You can always set up a scenario and win an argument if you can limit what is to be discussed.
You didn't read my previous posting, and here is the issue. The Hebrew Bible (HB), or Christian Old Testament, is a collection of texts of different types, purposes, and perspectives, whose composition may span as much as a thousand years (older consensus) or as little as two to three centuries. Current debate concerning the period and nature of the writings makes historical reconstruction difficult, but certain general characteristics hold for any period.
I was trying to show you the difference between men being sinners... and some men being sinners and are also evil. God destroys evil. King David was a sinner. Pharaoh was a sinner and evil.
This makes no sense, either mankind is sinners, sinful, evil, wicked which one is it? If it is all of them, then my point stands. "and some men being sinners and are also evil. God destroys evil." this is a contradiction, some men being sinners and are also evil, God destroys evil, but not the sinner? You just confused your own words.
Expiation rituals are used in the Old Testament to appease God in his infinite search for human blood. God in the New Testament gets a taste of his child's blood and no more expiation rites are required. Salvation only guarantees a ticket to Heaven in Christian mythology, sin is a different issue as no one can ever be holy or pure, to even say so is sinful, corrupt, wicked, so on and so on. This is all part of Biblical theology. You seem to miss the point of expiation rites in the Old Testament, also in
Bereishit 6:5 And the Lord saw that the evil of man was great in the earth, and every imagination of his heart was only evil all the time, in
Genesis 6:5 And God saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually.
The untranslated version of GENESIS/BEREISHIT 6:5 is:
הוַיַּ֣רְא יְהֹוָ֔ה כִּ֥י רַבָּ֛ה רָעַ֥ת הָֽאָדָ֖ם בָּאָ֑רֶץ וְכָל־יֵ֨צֶר֙ מַחְשְׁבֹ֣ת לִבּ֔וֹ רַ֥ק רַ֖ע כָּל־הַיּֽוֹם
And the LORD, the LORD, is the LORD, the LORD, the Lord, the Lord, the Lord, the Lord, the Lord, the Lord, the Lord, the Lord, the Lord, the Most High, the Most High, the Most High, the Most High, and the Most High.
The word evil is used in the original Tanach while in the KJV wickedness is used, in the original there is no word used, it is just a repeating of the terms LORD, MOST HIGH, etc...you also totally ignored that in transliteration wicked, sin, crime, evil are all the same, or did you think the Bible was written in English?
Your Bible fails from translation.
Finally, brethren, pray for us, that the word of the Lord may run swiftly
and be glorified, just as it is with you, and that we may be delivered from
unreasonable and wicked men; for not all have faith." 2 Thes 3:1-2
Believers are sinners by nature who have faith. Evil men are sinners by nature who reject faith. Both are sinners. God does not destroy men simply because they are sinners. God did not destroy man in the flood simply because they were sinners. Noah and his family (of sinners) had faith and lived by what faith they were given by God.
As I pointed out earlier, there is no difference between evil, sin, wicked as they are related Semitic root words and synonymous of each other.
You are trying to make a definition out of one word being separated from another word, when it is not. Not even by a Biblical standard does this happen, yet you amazingly are attempting to do this.