15. The book of James was not written to Gentiles
The apostles' separation from the Gentiles is clear from the book of James, as well, because he specifically addressed his epistle to Israel's "twelve tribes which are scattered abroad", according to James 1:1 -
James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting.
We would therefore have to "spiritualize" these twelve tribes in James 1:1 if we wish to make Gentiles even fit into James' intended audience. However, spiritualizing only select passages, such as James 1:1, creates great confusion, if other portions of the epistle are still taken literally (and they are indeed taken quite literally by many believers today). The problem then becomes a subjective one: Who is to determine which passages to spiritualize, and which ones to take literally? For example: If James 1:1 is to be "spiritualized" to include Gentiles, then why shouldn't James chapter 2 be "spiritualized", as well?
Plus, in addition to James' statement that he was writing to "the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad", he also made a binding agreement with Peter, John, and Paul to confine his ministry to "the circumcision" (the children of Israel). By contrast, though, Paul (who refers to himself as "the minister of Jesus Christ to the Gentiles" in Ro.15:16) was to go unto "the heathen" along with Barnabas, as we see in Gal.2:7-9 -
7: But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;
8: (For he that wrought effectually in Peter to the apostleship of the circumcision, the same was mighty in me toward the Gentiles
9: And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision.
In verse 7 above, Paul clearly made a distinction between the gospel of the UNcircumcision that had been committed unto him, and the gospel of the circumcision that Peter, James, and John were preaching. As a result, Paul and Barnabas were to go unto "the heathen", according to verse 9. And Peter, unto whom the gospel of the circumcision was committed, agreed to go unto "the circumcision", with James and John.
When these apostles therefore extended "the right hands of fellowship" to Paul and Barnabas, they bound the agreement, because the Lord Himself had previously agreed to support any such binding agreement these apostles made. Indeed, He had given Peter the authority to make such agreements, in Mt.16:18-19 -
18: And I say also unto thee, That thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it.
19: And I will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall be bound in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.
In addition, the power to bind on earth had also been granted to the rest of the disciples, as well (Mt.18:18). As a result, Peter (having the God-given authority to do so) bound Paul and Barnabas to go specifically to the heathen with the gospel of the uncircumcision. By doing so, Peter also bound James, John, and himself to confine their ministry to the circumcision saints.
Therefore, in view of the fact that Peter, James, and John agreed to "go unto the circumcision" (Gal.2:7-9), and since James confirms this by the fact that he wrote his epistle specifically to the 12 tribes of Israel (as he states in James 1:1), this also means that Peter, Jude, and John must have written their epistles to "the circumcision" (i.e., the twelve tribes of Israel), as well.
As a side note, it should be mentioned that the authorship of the book of James is still disputed, and will probably never be resolved to everyone's satisfaction. At least three different apostles are named James in the New Testament scriptures. In the book of Galatians, Paul refers to "James the Lord's brother" as an apostle (Gal.1:19), and states that James was with Peter and John when they agreed to confine their ministry to the circumcision (Gal.2:7-9). By comparing Paul's statements in Gal.1:19 and 2:7-9 with James 1:1, it is possible that "James the Lord's brother" wrote the epistle that bears his name.
However, there were also two other apostles named James, as well. One was the brother of John, the son of Zebedee (Mt.10:2), whom Herod killed with the sword (Acts 12:1-2). Likewise, there was also an apostle named James who was "the son of Alphaeus" (Mt.10:3). And indeed, one of these three apostles named James also had a brother named Jude, who wrote the epistle of Jude (see Jude 1:1).
Although this is not a common view, it is still possible that the epistle of James could have been written by "James the brother of John", whom Herod killed with the sword in Acts 12:2. If this is the case, it would explain why his epistle states that "faith, if it hath not works, is dead, being alone" (James 2:17); "faith without works is dead" (2:20); "by works a man is justified, and not by faith only" (2:24); etc. While the epistle of James seems to be lacking in much of the doctrine that is in Paul's epistles, it is obvious that Peter and John both included doctrines in their epistles that they learned from Paul (for example, compare 1 Pet. 1:18-19 to Peter's sermons during the book of Acts). So, because "James the brother of John" was killed before Paul received his revelation from the Lord, this would explain why the epistle of James says these things, if he was the one who wrote it. "James the brother of John" died before he could learn the truths that Peter and John apparently learned (directly or indirectly) from the apostle Paul.
In any case, no matter which James wrote the epistle, his statement that the twelve tribes were "scattered abroad" (James 1:1) also matches the events recorded in Acts 8:1-4, which states that the church at Jerusalem was "scattered abroad" after the stoning of Stephen (compare Acts 11:19). In addition, this also agrees with the Lord's words at the "last supper". At that time, He quoted a prophecy which stated that the sheep of the flock would be "scattered abroad" upon His crucifixion, in Mt.26:31 -
Then saith Jesus unto them, All ye shall be offended because of me this night: for it is written, I will smite the shepherd, and the sheep of the flock shall be scattered abroad.
The above prophecy which the Lord quoted comes from Zech.13:7-9 -
7: Awake, O sword, against my shepherd, and against the man that is my fellow, saith the LORD of hosts: smite the shepherd, and the sheep shall be scattered: and I will turn mine hand upon the little ones.
8: And it shall come to pass, that in all the land, saith the LORD, two parts therein shall be cut off and die; but the third shall be left therein.
9: And I will bring the third part through the fire, and will refine them as silver is refined, and will try them as gold is tried: they shall call on my name, and I will hear them: I will say, It is my people: and they shall say, The LORD is my God.
In fact, Mark also records the Lord's quotation of the above prophecy, in Mk.14:27. According to this prophecy, then, "the sheep" (i.e., the nation of Israel) would be scattered upon the Lord's crucifixion, and one third of them would be brought "through the fire" (compare Mt.3:11; Luke 12:49). As a result, since James wrote his epistle to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, the Gentiles were not among his intended audience. To avoid doctrinal confusion, then, we should accept the book of James as it is, and simply allow it to say exactly what it says, to whom it was written (the twelve tribes of Israel). We should neither spiritualize the first verse, nor James chapter 2, nor the rest of the epistle.
The apostles' separation from the Gentiles is clear from the book of James, as well, because he specifically addressed his epistle to Israel's "twelve tribes which are scattered abroad", according to James 1:1 -
James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting.
We would therefore have to "spiritualize" these twelve tribes in James 1:1 if we wish to make Gentiles even fit into James' intended audience. However, spiritualizing only select passages, such as James 1:1, creates great confusion, if other portions of the epistle are still taken literally (and they are indeed taken quite literally by many believers today). The problem then becomes a subjective one: Who is to determine which passages to spiritualize, and which ones to take literally? For example: If James 1:1 is to be "spiritualized" to include Gentiles, then why shouldn't James chapter 2 be "spiritualized", as well?
Plus, in addition to James' statement that he was writing to "the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad", he also made a binding agreement with Peter, John, and Paul to confine his ministry to "the circumcision" (the children of Israel). By contrast, though, Paul (who refers to himself as "the minister of Jesus Christ to the Gentiles" in Ro.15:16) was to go unto "the heathen" along with Barnabas, as we see in Gal.2:7-9 -
7: But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;
8: (For he that wrought effectually in Peter to the apostleship of the circumcision, the same was mighty in me toward the Gentiles
9: And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision.
In verse 7 above, Paul clearly made a distinction between the gospel of the UNcircumcision that had been committed unto him, and the gospel of the circumcision that Peter, James, and John were preaching. As a result, Paul and Barnabas were to go unto "the heathen", according to verse 9. And Peter, unto whom the gospel of the circumcision was committed, agreed to go unto "the circumcision", with James and John.
When these apostles therefore extended "the right hands of fellowship" to Paul and Barnabas, they bound the agreement, because the Lord Himself had previously agreed to support any such binding agreement these apostles made. Indeed, He had given Peter the authority to make such agreements, in Mt.16:18-19 -
18: And I say also unto thee, That thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it.
19: And I will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall be bound in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.
In addition, the power to bind on earth had also been granted to the rest of the disciples, as well (Mt.18:18). As a result, Peter (having the God-given authority to do so) bound Paul and Barnabas to go specifically to the heathen with the gospel of the uncircumcision. By doing so, Peter also bound James, John, and himself to confine their ministry to the circumcision saints.
Therefore, in view of the fact that Peter, James, and John agreed to "go unto the circumcision" (Gal.2:7-9), and since James confirms this by the fact that he wrote his epistle specifically to the 12 tribes of Israel (as he states in James 1:1), this also means that Peter, Jude, and John must have written their epistles to "the circumcision" (i.e., the twelve tribes of Israel), as well.
As a side note, it should be mentioned that the authorship of the book of James is still disputed, and will probably never be resolved to everyone's satisfaction. At least three different apostles are named James in the New Testament scriptures. In the book of Galatians, Paul refers to "James the Lord's brother" as an apostle (Gal.1:19), and states that James was with Peter and John when they agreed to confine their ministry to the circumcision (Gal.2:7-9). By comparing Paul's statements in Gal.1:19 and 2:7-9 with James 1:1, it is possible that "James the Lord's brother" wrote the epistle that bears his name.
However, there were also two other apostles named James, as well. One was the brother of John, the son of Zebedee (Mt.10:2), whom Herod killed with the sword (Acts 12:1-2). Likewise, there was also an apostle named James who was "the son of Alphaeus" (Mt.10:3). And indeed, one of these three apostles named James also had a brother named Jude, who wrote the epistle of Jude (see Jude 1:1).
Although this is not a common view, it is still possible that the epistle of James could have been written by "James the brother of John", whom Herod killed with the sword in Acts 12:2. If this is the case, it would explain why his epistle states that "faith, if it hath not works, is dead, being alone" (James 2:17); "faith without works is dead" (2:20); "by works a man is justified, and not by faith only" (2:24); etc. While the epistle of James seems to be lacking in much of the doctrine that is in Paul's epistles, it is obvious that Peter and John both included doctrines in their epistles that they learned from Paul (for example, compare 1 Pet. 1:18-19 to Peter's sermons during the book of Acts). So, because "James the brother of John" was killed before Paul received his revelation from the Lord, this would explain why the epistle of James says these things, if he was the one who wrote it. "James the brother of John" died before he could learn the truths that Peter and John apparently learned (directly or indirectly) from the apostle Paul.
In any case, no matter which James wrote the epistle, his statement that the twelve tribes were "scattered abroad" (James 1:1) also matches the events recorded in Acts 8:1-4, which states that the church at Jerusalem was "scattered abroad" after the stoning of Stephen (compare Acts 11:19). In addition, this also agrees with the Lord's words at the "last supper". At that time, He quoted a prophecy which stated that the sheep of the flock would be "scattered abroad" upon His crucifixion, in Mt.26:31 -
Then saith Jesus unto them, All ye shall be offended because of me this night: for it is written, I will smite the shepherd, and the sheep of the flock shall be scattered abroad.
The above prophecy which the Lord quoted comes from Zech.13:7-9 -
7: Awake, O sword, against my shepherd, and against the man that is my fellow, saith the LORD of hosts: smite the shepherd, and the sheep shall be scattered: and I will turn mine hand upon the little ones.
8: And it shall come to pass, that in all the land, saith the LORD, two parts therein shall be cut off and die; but the third shall be left therein.
9: And I will bring the third part through the fire, and will refine them as silver is refined, and will try them as gold is tried: they shall call on my name, and I will hear them: I will say, It is my people: and they shall say, The LORD is my God.
In fact, Mark also records the Lord's quotation of the above prophecy, in Mk.14:27. According to this prophecy, then, "the sheep" (i.e., the nation of Israel) would be scattered upon the Lord's crucifixion, and one third of them would be brought "through the fire" (compare Mt.3:11; Luke 12:49). As a result, since James wrote his epistle to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, the Gentiles were not among his intended audience. To avoid doctrinal confusion, then, we should accept the book of James as it is, and simply allow it to say exactly what it says, to whom it was written (the twelve tribes of Israel). We should neither spiritualize the first verse, nor James chapter 2, nor the rest of the epistle.
