Apologetic_Warrior said:Let's suppose your view for arguments sake, that the purpose of the atonement was to render all men savable. By that view, Christ died for nobody in particular, it cannot be said the atonement is substitutional, and therefore no wrath satisfied on behalf of individuals (penal), and therefore the application of atonement hinges conditionally upon man's choices. It should be obvious most of mankind has chosen to reject the Christ of Christianity. Why would God render all men savable knowing the overwhelming vast majority of mankind would reject Christ? What you are really saying is that in the purpose of the atonement God WILLING the purpose to render all men savable, which is the exact view I addressed, which you seem to think does not apply, in the thwarting of the sovereign will of God.
That might be more logical but what's important is not is it logical but is it biblical?
Not all of God's desires were included in his decreed will.
Have I any pleasure in the death of the wicked? saith the Lord Jehovah; and not rather that he should return from his way, and live? ......
For I have no pleasure in the death of him that dieth, saith the Lord Jehovah: wherefore turn yourselves, and live. (Ezekiel 18:23, 32 ASV)
God desired that the wicked turn and live but it was not part of the decree.
who would have all men to be saved, and come to the knowledge of the truth. (1 Timothy 2:4 ASV)
Again His desire yet not part of the decree.
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