That [Numbers 31:17-18] is NOT "child rape," as accused.
Please point out who here has mentioned child rape? Neither I nor the OP has done so, although I can understand the sensitivity given the text. The verses are clear and consistent with the OP, that behaviour of the Israelites was indistinguishable from the mores of any other warring tribe of the time. The implication from that is, to paraphrase a singer, "what's god got to do with it?". If a deity was involved, why does that deity act identically with anyone else of the time?
Scripture isn't just "assertion;" it's G-d-breathed.
The evidence for this, other than self-references in the book, being
?
The question in any event was,
"How do we know what is willed by a deity?", especially when we pass the end of the book. No answer as yet.
None of this "a god's" stuff; there is ONE G-d, maker of all that is, seen and unseen.
Recollect that I am an atheist and see nothing to distinguish your god other than a slightly greater popularity than the next one in line, which is more popular than the next and so on through thousands of the blighters. Another reason I am using "a god" and "deity" as much as possible is to try to step delicately around the sensibilities of those who wish me to provide an honorific capitalisation, which I will not, including for zeus, kalki and even pikkiwokki.
What changed? This is a good question. Keep that thought in mind as you read the stories, and draw no conclusion until you see the uniqueness of that situation. Then you'll understand why the story is included.
I did not ask why the story was included. I asked about the change in acceptable actions. No answer as yet.
G-d violates our social mores, which is what makes these stories controversial in the first place, right?
No, wrong. The stories violate our current mores but are consistent with many of the period. God has always acted as his believers expect him to, throughout history.
First, your 1700 years figure is *a bit* off.
I guess that is another discussion about when the final books which were included in the bible were actually written. I am sure you will find other debates on that and I will not pursue it myself.
Next, you "decide these things" based on SCRIPTURE. That's it's purpose. Entering our "social mores" into the picture is called 'corruption.' It's pretending to be able to fashion G-d into our own image, thinking somehow, for some reason He will change for us. He will NOT. And the horrible OT stories this thread alludes to all have one thing in common: G-d dictates what is right and what is wrong, and He really does Judge mankind for doing wrong. No escaping that.
If you decide things based on scripture, then why not decide upon the behaviour shown in Numbers 31:17-18? For that matter, why eat shellfish? Where did that rule get changed later? Did insects have four legs in those days (another reference I can dig out for you if you like) and change to six or eight later? It is not enough to say "scripture" unless you can firstly point to the relevant part and secondly, most importantly, explain what is the general biblical rule which chooses that part rather than a conflicting part.
G-d is right, and bow your knee to Him. Start there and ask Him to speak to you as you read the Bible, and you may find yourself quite surprised at how much it says to you.
Been there, done that, waste of time. I can see the "no true scotsman" fallacy about to break out here.
All of the Bible is True.
You are a literalist, then? You agree uncritically with everything it says? The earth is flat and its entirety can be seen by going up a mountain?
Please don't project this false notion [end justify means] onto the Bible, nor onto the G-d of the Bible. The means are part of the story for a reason!
In the stories, what we see clearly are the means. The ends are not always so readily apparent. Often you won't get it w/o prayer and fasting, esp if it's in the OT. [Greater delirium helps? - P] Also realize mere words aren't even in the same realm as the underlying Truth!
This simply avoids the question by saying we do not know the ends so we can not criticise the means! I do believe the end in question was victory over the Midianites and the Israelis then executed the able bodied and mothers, and took virgins to impregnate, as was repeated in the 1990s in Eastern Europe, where there was also disagreement between people with different gods.