Not according to one of the great minds of mathematics Roger Penrose. It has always been there for us to discover. As Penrose states some think that math is the best way we have come to understand the world but it is not us that has discovered this it is really out there.
And yet, other 'great minds' like Stephen Hawking have published books like
'The Grand Design' which portrays a different 'model dependent reality' .. a view which is testable, and generates abundant evidence, whereas Penrose's personal amazement has led him to believe that the universe
is mathematics and can offer not much more than the accuracy argument (see below).
stevevw said:
These mathematical equations that describe reality are very precise beyond what humans could have worked out. Feynman's described its accuracy as measuring the distance between New York and Los Angles as being precise within the thickness of a hair. Newtons theory has an accuracy of 10 to the 7 and Einsteins theory is accurate to 10 to the power of 14.
So what is the accuracy argument supposed to be telling us?
A colleague of mine argued that we still don't know if there is a 'true mathematical theory that is exactly correct, so how does having a theory that is
'close to perfect' actually demonstrate that there is some sort of reality that is independent from either Penrose's (or Feynman's) minds? Are we supposed to think that if we have a theory that is
'close to true', there should be some other theory that is
'exactly true'? Or are we supposed to think there is no
'exactly true' theory, but the truly mind independent one, is the thing that is
'nearly true'?
How are we supposed to figure out which of those is the actual evidence of some mind independent math based reality?
Whilst Penrose, Feynman and most of us, are justifiably amazed that math works as well as it does, (even in applications we almost never encounter in our everyday lives), none of that adds up to being evidence of anything existing independently from any of those amazed minds.
All we have here is language that is in a conflict between
the meanings of 'mind-independent' and 'reality'.
stevevw said:
Mathematical facts like there is no largest prime number is true independent of humans and has always been true and didn't suddenly become true because we discovered it.
How did it get to be 'true' if mathematicians didn't figure it out as being 'true' based on the initial axioms of math? And when last I looked, mathematicians are humans .. and are certainly dependent on their minds!
What is the basis of the declaration of:
'it is true independent of of humans' when we already know that its 'truth' was
declared by humans who were following the logical processes laid out in math, which is based on axioms similarly merely declared as being 'true'?
stevevw said:
Penrose likens Math to archeology or geology where we are discovering beautiful things that have always been there and we are revealing them for the first time.
So he's created that as a new model in his mind because it pleases him .. so what's new about that? And how can that be a demonstration of true mind independence?