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ok... infant. An infant placed into eternity. No resurrection body? Just remains an infant forever?
You can not answer that. Not with a good answer, you can't.
.... infancy + eternity? = a retarded soul for all eternity!?
For, nothing ages in eternity. Nothing can grow old, nor age.
How long is that going to take to sink in?all eternity?
It's not Isaiah 11 but Isaiah 2, and Joel 3 and Micah 4 all describe a time of beating swords into plowshares and spears into pruning hooks, and outside of an earthly millennial kingdom I can't see how that comes to pass. as in eternity, there never are weapons to convert into farming implements.
In a Millennial period, yes, this earth has a long history of war, so, a time of peace on earth where weapons are converted to farming implements seems a lot more plausible, than us having weapons to convert to begin with in eternity.
Who are Gog and Magog and who are the saints on earth in Satan's little season in Rev 20?
I have already addressed this.
With Premils, they not only invent an additional age to that which Jesus and the NT recognized, but they then conveniently dump prophecy after prophecy into this supposed future age. This is problematic. This is seen when the OT prophet mentions where it relates to. Because Premil lacks any corroboration in Scripture for a future 1,000 years’ age after the second coming, it invents 2 “last days” periods to allow Premil to fit. Mark 1 now, and Mark 2 after the second coming. Premils also invent 2 new heavens and new earths. Mark 1 they relate to their alleged future millennium and is sin-cursed and corrupt. Mark 2 is perfect and incorrupt and they equate it to 1,000 years+ after this.
Last days
Let us start with the subject of "the last days."
Isaiah 2:2-4 says, speaking of the Lord’s first Advent, “And it shall come to pass in the last days, that the mountain of the Lord's house shall be established in the top of the mountains, and shall be exalted above the hills; and all nations shall flow unto it. And many people shall go and say, Come ye, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for out of Zion shall go forth the law, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem. And he shall judge among the nations, and shall rebuke many people: and they shall beat their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruninghooks: nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more."
Micah 4:1-3 parallels this teaching, saying, “in the last days it shall come to pass, that the mountain of the house of the LORD shall be established in the top of the mountains, and it shall be exalted above the hills; and people shall flow unto it. And many nations shall come, and say, Come, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, and to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for the law shall go forth of Zion, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem. And he shall judge among many people, and rebuke strong nations afar off; and they shall beat their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruninghooks: nation shall not lift up a sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more.”
Is this spiritually speaking of the intra-Advent period or is it talking about some new age in-between this evil age and the age to come?
The correlation between Isaiah’s vision and that of Micah is undoubted and remarkable.
But what is these prophecies all about?
The whole thrust of these passages surrounds a new anticipated day when Messiah would come and usher in true peace. Of course, many trip up with passages like this with their literalist mind-set. They fail to see that peace with God is not some purely abstract earthly thing. It would be wrong to understand or interpret the prophetic words in both of these texts in a natural literal carnal sense. It is not referring to the cessation of physical violence. The termination of war or military conflict does not constitute true peace in God’s eyes.
The last days
The NT assists us in locating this period. We do not need to speculate.
Christ’s earthly ministry ushered in the period of the ‘last days’. Hebrews 1:1-2 declares, “God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son.”
1 Peter 1:18-20 also confirm the fact that says, “Christ … was manifest in these last times for you.”
The ‘last days’ commenced with the earthly ministry of the Lord Jesus Christ and will terminate with His glorious Second Coming. Hebrews 9:26 says, “now once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin.”
In Acts 2:16-21 Peter shows that the last days were active and ongoing at Pentecost, saying, “this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel; And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh.”
John testified in I John 2:18 that he was actually in the last days: “Little children, it is the last time.”
1 Corinthians 10:11 says, “the ends of the world are come.”
Speaking of his day, James 5:1-3 says, “Ye have heaped treasure together for the last days.”
These passages demonstrate that we are in the end times since Christ’s first Advent and that the last days don’t relate to another age after Christ’s appearing, as Premillennialism imagines. The “last days” clearly relate to the intra-Advent period and find their conclusion at the “last day” – Christ’s Coming. I see the “last day” (singular) of the “last days” (plural) as the all-consummating appearing of Christ, which witnesses the total destruction of the world/wicked and a general resurrection / judgement. I believe Scripture shows that the “last days” (plural) terminate at the “last day” (singular) with the raising and judging of both the righteous (John 6:39-44, 54, 11:23-24) and the wicked (John 12:48). In all these references, the wording in the original for “last day” is always the same – eschatee heemara. The Greek word eschatee used here comes from the root word eschatos, from where we get our word English eschatology, and simply means end, last, farthest or final.
Gog and Magog is the nation/s in the far north, the northern quarter of the earth. (Ez. 38: 1 & 15, Joel 2: 20)
The saints that Satan comes against are those who believe in God and obey Him. (Micah 4: 1 - 3)
That doesn't address it at all. It's a lot of diatribe that does not address the issue of the OT prophets, envisioning a future age, where war USED to exist, but now peace reigns, and weapons are converted to tools of peace.
War will NEVER have existed on the new earth.
Where would the weapons come from to convert?
Yes it does. It exposes your fixation with a future millennium and it highlights how you have zero corroboration to support your theory. We are in the last days now, and these will end at Christ's one-and-only coming on the last day.
You therefore have to invent 2 “last days” periods to allow Premil to fit. Mark 1 now, and Mark 2 after the second coming. Premils also invent 2 new heavens and new earths. Mark 1 they relate to their alleged future millennium and is sin-cursed and corrupt. Mark 2 is perfect and incorrupt and they equate it to 1,000 years+ after this. This is theological gerrymandering to support false teaching.
I don't believe that any dead unbelievers will get resurrected only to be killed again and then resurrected a second time to stand before judgment. I don't believe any unbelievers get killed twice. After reading the rest of your post, I realize now how you came to that conclusion that I believed that. I clarified my view for you at the end of this post.The difference is, if you believe that the 1st resurrection refers to 2000 years ago, and that we're all waiting for the 2nd resurrection, which resurrects everyone, and that happens as Jesus comes down from heaven, people get resurrected, as many unbelievers who have already died get resurrected, and then, instantly incinerated to die a second time, which would require another resurrection for them to stand judgement.
That's the part that is silly.
Okay, after responding to your previous comments by asking what you were talking about (I have now removed those responses) I finally figured out what you've been talking about in terms of thinking I believe some people will get killed twice. Allow me to explain.See if it's only believers who are resurrected at the return of Christ, then it is no problem that the resurrection happens while Jesus is still in the air, before He's destroyed anything or anyone in His wrath. Nobody's subject to a second death there.
But if EVERYONE is resurrected while Jesus is returning and is still in the air, before any wrath has started, then they are subject to a second death, and then hell being the 3rd death.
If the first resurrection is an end times resurrection at the rapture of believers only, and the 2nd resurrection happens after the world has been purged by fire, and resurrects everyone (aside from those who'd already been resurrected in the rapture) , well then they can just stand judgement. Rather than be resurrected, killed, then have to be resurrected again to stand judgement.
I don't believe that any dead unbelievers will get resurrected only to be killed again and then resurrected a second time to stand before judgment. I don't believe any unbelievers get killed twice. After reading the rest of your post, I realize now how you came to that conclusion that I believed that. I clarified my view for you at the end of this post.
Okay, after responding to your previous comments by asking what you were talking about (I have now removed those responses) I finally figured out what you've been talking about in terms of thinking I believe some people will get killed twice. Allow me to explain.
When I say that all people, believers and unbelievers, will be resurrected at the same time/hour (as Jesus taught in John 5:28-29), I don't mean at the exact same time with no time in between at all. What I really mean is that they both get resurrected at the same event, namely the second coming of Christ. When Christ descends from heaven at His return, the dead in Christ will be raised and changed (1 Cor 15:50-54) and then meet the Lord in the air. Fire will then come down upon the earth to destroy the wicked and even the earth itself (the surface of the earth, at least). Right after that (I don't know how long exactly since scripture doesn't say - probably not very long at all), all of the dead unbelievers (including those who were just killed) will be raised to stand before the great white throne. And, of course, as an amil I believe the saved will be there at the judgment as well (Matt 25:31-46).
Did all that make sense? Let me now if not. It never occurred to me that I would need to clarify the timing like this since I assume people would know that I meant that I believe they will be raised at the same general time even if not at the same exact time.
ok... infant. An infant placed into eternity. No resurrection body? Just remains an infant forever?
You can not answer that. Not with a good answer, you can't.
.... infancy + eternity? = a retarded soul for all eternity!?
For, nothing ages in eternity. Nothing can grow old, nor age.
How long is that going to take to sink in?all eternity?
Keep in mind. Israel as a nation had disappeared in 70 AD, and reappeared on May 14, 1948!
Well, that's clearer. But you're still making a peaks of prophecy mistake. You're assuming something shortly after, because you don't believe a time is given.
Well, there is a time given, 1000 years for one, and even if no specific time is given, it is an assumption you're making that it happens right away after.
We're talking about a God for whom time is basically meaningless. Where a week is prophetically 7 years, and a day can be a thousand years. The only time I take time to be litearl is when the time seems to be specific. IE I do not count "the day" or "the hour" to mean specifically 1 24 hour period (where you get literal and I consider it figurative) or a single 60 minute period, which I also consider figurative, but when a period of time like five months, or 3 days is given, I usually do interpret that literally. There is however some exceptions like Hosea 6 giving a prophecy of Israel being gathered together on the 2nd day after being scattered, and resurrected and taken to be with God on the 3rd day, which.. okay that didn't happen in 24 hour periods.. but it can be interpreted to happen as in between 1000-2000 years (Hebrew time reckoning always counts the day you're on as day 1) so 1948 regathered, and sometime after 2070 possibly the resurrection and living with God. But, I'm not 100% on that interpretation, just something I've heard for it.
So who knows, maybe the "Millennium" is a single 24 hour day since God flips around a day and 1000 years sometimes... but that's in reverse from how that time reckoning usually works, so I doubt it.
So I don't think it's good to assume everything happens within a single 24 hour day, because you make the same mistake that people in Jesus' time made in assuming that Jesus wasn't going to have a second coming and that He failed by dying. They thought the Messiah was supposed to fulfill everything at once.
So you're following their precedent of making a bad assumption that everything happens at once.
OP raises a legitimate question for me as a premillennial.
One explanation might be that upon Christ's return he glorifies our bodies, but not at the exclusion that sin is impossible in the millennial kingdom. As such, upon Gog and Magog being influenced by Satan when Satan is released from the bottomless pit, Satan tries to take as many souls with him as possible in that short time he is release from the bottomless pit but before the final judgement.
Hmm...
What occurs to these mortal believers before the NHNE in your estimation?
What is wrong with that? Do you know how much time goes by between what occurs in Rev 20:9 and Rev 20:11-15? No. Would you assume it's shortly after? I would think so. So, would you be making a "prophecy mistake" then? I'm sure you would say no. So, to me the point your made here is...pointless.Well, that's clearer. But you're still making a peaks of prophecy mistake. You're assuming something shortly after, because you don't believe a time is given.
No, it is not an assumption at all. Where is your future thousand years found here:Well, there is a time given, 1000 years for one, and even if no specific time is given, it is an assumption you're making that it happens right away after.
So, with that being the case why does the thousand years have to be literal? Why can't it figuratively refer to a long period of time similar to how the weeks in Daniel are longer than literal weeks and instead each represent 7 years?We're talking about a God for whom time is basically meaningless. Where a week is prophetically 7 years, and a day can be a thousand years.
The reference to weeks in Daniel is pretty specific. There is nothing there that specifically indicates that they represent 7 years. But, when it comes to the thousand years you somehow can't even allow for the possibility that it may not be literal. That's interesting.The only time I take time to be litearl is when the time seems to be specific.
It's pretty clear that we both sometimes interpret prophetic time periods literally and sometimes figuratively. Yet, for some reason, it's amils who get criticized for doing that. Very interesting.IE I do not count "the day" or "the hour" to mean specifically 1 24 hour period (where you get literal and I consider it figurative) or a single 60 minute period, which I also consider figurative, but when a period of time like five months, or 3 days is given, I usually do interpret that literally.
Do you think I believe the thousand years represents a single 24 hour day? If so, you are way off base. Have you never heard of amillennialism before? Amils believe that the thousand years figuratively represents the time period between Christ's first coming and shortly before His second coming (with Satan's little season in between). We believe Christ reigns in heaven now with the souls of the dead in Christ and also reigns in the hearts of His believers on the earth (see Eph 2:1-6, Rev 1:5-6).So who knows, maybe the "Millennium" is a single 24 hour day since God flips around a day and 1000 years sometimes... but that's in reverse from how that time reckoning usually works, so I doubt it.
I don't believe "everything" happens at once. To my amazement, it looks like you even think I believe the thousand years happens all at once (in one day). Not at all. I'm starting to realize now that you must not know anything about the amillennial view (at least not before this thread) because your focus is normally on the timing of the rapture and not the thousand years.So I don't think it's good to assume everything happens within a single 24 hour day, because you make the same mistake that people in Jesus' time made in assuming that Jesus wasn't going to have a second coming and that He failed by dying. They thought the Messiah was supposed to fulfill everything at once.
So you're following their precedent of making a bad assumption that everything happens at once.
OP raises a legitimate question for me as a premillennial.
One explanation might be that upon Christ's return he glorifies our bodies, but not at the exclusion that sin is impossible in the millennial kingdom. As such, upon Gog and Magog being influenced by Satan when Satan is released from the bottomless pit, Satan tries to take as many souls with him as possible in that short time he is release from the bottomless pit but before the final judgement.
Hmm...
It is very difficult taking lectures from Dispys about the literal straightforward rendering of any time period when tbey decapitate the 70 weeks of Daniel 9 by propeling the last 7 years into the unknown. This butchers the harmonious time-period and negates everything that was been said of the Messiah. This is terrible hermeneutics.
When Scripture says 7 days, 70 days, 70 weeks or 70 years is proper to see this as sequential and congruent.
The only 'seven years' passage that you bring to the table (namely Daniel 9) makes absolutely no mention to your so-called rapture, seven-year tribulation, or third coming. It has to be forced into the sacred text. What is more, you have to rip it out of its historical context and propel it into the unknown, without any hermeneutical grounds to do so, and apply it to some imaginary '7-year' age in the future.
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