... is probably too verbose for its own good. But at least I've started!
Article 2: Whether it is sound exegesis to try to learn elements corresponding to modern modes of knowledge from the Bible:
Objection 1: It would seem that God should have known that we would have science and would therefore have incorporated scientific knowledge in the Scriptures.
Objection 2: Further, God's verbal inspiration would preclude inaccurate or imprecise cosmology.
Objection 3: Further, human modes of knowledge should be subservient to Scriptural interpretation because knowledge revealed by God is infinitely more certain than tentative knowledge gained by investigation.
Prologue
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Chris Tomlin is a leading singer-songwriter in today's contemporary Christian music industry. Recently (last year) he released a song entitled Indescribable, which uses Biblical images (most notably those from Job 38) to make his point:
Who has told every lightning bolt where it should go
Or seen heavenly storehouses laden with snow
Who imagined the sun and gives source to its light
Yet conceals it to bring us the coolness of night
None can fathom
The song is beautiful, but isn't it scientifically suspect? What would Chris Tomlin say to someone who protested to these lyrics, on the grounds that: the path of lightning is governed by electrostatics, people see "heavenly storehouses laden with snow" - clouds - all the time, that fusion powers the Sun, and that the night is caused by a rotatinig Earth? Clearly Chris would say that his critic had completely missed the point of the song. The critic has not proved the song wrong; he has just proven that it has a different point altogether.
Keep this in mind as we explore the Bible and see what (if anything) it has to say about science. We are not proving the Bible wrong; we are just proving that it has a different point altogether.
Objection 1
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"The creation issue is about whether the Bible or modern ‘science’ is the authority on what happened in Earth’s past. But the Bible is the Eyewitness account of the Maker who was there, knows everything and never errs." - Jonathan Sarfati, 'But Genesis is not a science textbook' (
http://www.answersingenesis.org/creation/v26/i4/editorial.asp)
We should first consider what scientific knowledge actually is, which will help in the rest of the article. We can divide it into two broad categories: scientific
observations, which are physical data obtained from objective observations and measurements of various parts of creation; and scientific
theories, which are physical hypotheses and conceptual frameworks used to organize scientific observations. With these ideas in mind, let us rephrase the objection slightly: is it not appropriate to assume that God may have included scientific observations or scientific theories in the Bible?
He well could have! There is no theoretical objection to God making the Bible a scientific text or to Him not doing so; the question is not "could He?" but "did He?" This will be answered below.
Answer 1: God was at perfect liberty to incorporate or to withhold scientific knowledge from the Scriptures. We must determine which of those He actually did by looking carefully at both science and Scripture; neither source alone will give us a full answer.
Objection 2
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"The Bible is much more than just a history book, however; it was written by inspiration of God. The Lord certainly understands how this universe works; after all, He made it. So His word, the Bible, gives us the foundation for understanding the universe." Jason Lisle, "What Does the Bible Say About Astronomy" (
http://www.answersingenesis.org/radio/pdf/astronomy.pdf)
To go from "God understands the universe" (which no Christian denies) to "The Bible helps us understand the universe" is a large leap. But is it warranted? After all, the Bible will only help us understand what it was intended to communicate.
Note that when spiritual revelation is claimed of the Bible, the express purpose of this spiritual revelation is given:
All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, so that the man of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work.
(2 Timothy 3:16-17 NIV)
We did not follow cleverly invented stories when we told you about the power and coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, but we were eyewitnesses of his majesty. For he received honor and glory from God the Father when the voice came to him from the Majestic Glory, saying, "This is my Son, whom I love; with him I am well pleased." We ourselves heard this voice that came from heaven when we were with him on the sacred mountain. And we have the word of the prophets made more certain, and you will do well to pay attention to it, as to a light shining in a dark place, until the day dawns and the morning star rises in your hearts. Above all, you must understand that no prophecy of Scripture came about by the prophet's own interpretation. For prophecy never had its origin in the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit.
(2 Peter 1:16-21 NIV)
Is it to satisfy man's curiosity about created things? No, it is to elucidate who God is and what impact His identity has on man - as a sole creator God, then as a relational covenant God, then as an incarnational Savior, then an immanent Spirit. (This is not a modalist view; it is an extremely brief recap of the progressive revelation of the Trinity.) As such, if God did not intend to communicate scientific knowledge through the Bible, then God would not have required it to be scientifically accurate.
"However, wouldn't any lie in the Bible invalidate its truth?" Yet it would have been impossible for God, having began to commit Himself to a scientific revelation in Scripture (which would be unnecessary; see below), to finish it to perfect accuracy. Would He have revealed Newtonian mechanics? Then He would be wrong, for it breaks down near the speed of light. Would He have revealed Einstein's theories of relativity? Then He would be wrong, for it breaks down on an extremely small scale where space and time themselves are quantized. Would He have revealed some quantum gravity theory that resolves this? We know for a fact that He hasn't.
Moreover, Newtonian physics isn't "wrong" when we use it in every day life to cross streets without getting hit or lob balls or do physics homework; it is a sufficient approximation. In the same way, a geocentric universe is really a sufficient approximation for a man who wants to know why the Sun is only in the sky half of the day; a young universe created in six days is really a sufficient approximation for a nation who needs a Creator God for a sense of national identity. Would it then be a lie for God to tell the Jews such things? Only if He intended them to replace these statements for actual scientific investigation; we shall see shortly that He did not.
Answer 2: God could only have revealed approximations to scientific truth instead of scientific truth in the Scriptures; therefore, to hold Scripture to scientific inerrancy will cause Scripture to fail that test even if scientific creationism is absolutely true. Furthermore, there is no evidence that the intended purpose of Scripture was actually to communicate scientific knowledge, as discussed in Answer 1.
Objection 3
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"... if we weren’t there in the past to observe events, how can we know what happened so we can explain the present? It would be great to have a time machine so we could know for sure about past events. Christians of course claim they do, in a sense, have a ‘time machine’. They have a book called the Bible which claims to be the Word of God who has always been there, and has revealed to us the major events of the past about which we need to know." Ken Ham, "Creation: 'where's the proof?'" (
http://www.answersingenesis.org/creation/v22/i1/creation.asp)
I will make a slight detour to address presuppositionalism. Supposedly, evolution and creationism are two equally valid frameworks (or "presuppositions") from which one can interpret the data, and they can only be distinguished in their validity by the Bible - as an extension, they aren't really scientific and transcend scientific discussion. Thus in the article quoted above, Ham goes on to say that if the Bible is not included in the debate, there is no way for a creationist to win. But this is simply not how science works. If creationism were really equally valid with evolution, then there would be no fact which creationism explains and evolution cannot (which creationists claim), nor would there be any fact which evolution explains and creationism cannot (which evolutionists show). Suffice to say that creationists certainly argue as if presuppositionalism is false, no matter how many philosophical treatises they write to propose that it is true.
Now, giving the creationists the largest leeway of argument possible: suppose that God did indeed aspire for complete scientific accuracy in the Bible, and that He did indeed write the Bible with the intent to communicate scientific knowledge (namely, that Objections 1 and 2 are valid). Even if He did, would we have been able to retrieve that knowledge?
For a practical example, consider how creationists approach the Scriptures concerning geocentrism. Sarfati recognizes that:
This allows him to not consider passages like Eccles. 1:5 and Psalm 93:1 in constructing his cosmogony, instead deciding that those passages were not written for the purpose of teaching cosmology. However he earlier on (mis)uses Isaiah 40:22 to argue that the sphericity of the Earth is compatible with the Bible:
... think about Neil Armstrong in space—to him, the spherical earth would have appeared circular regardless of which direction he viewed it from.
But I am sure that Isaiah, when he wrote these words, did not intend to convey to his readers what the Earth looked like from space! Or does the principle of "author's intent" only appear when dealing with Scriptures that contradict an already-established scientific worldview, but not before?
The surface problem is that it is simply impossible to translate accurately and consistently from Scriptural expressions to scientific truths. Suppose God had really intended Eccles. 1 and Psalm 93 to teach geocentrism. Would Sarfati not then have been wrong? Indeed, how does Sarfati know that he is handling Scriptures rightly? Certainly, Eccles. 1 and Psalm 93 are not astronomy textbooks - neither is Isaiah 40. It is obvious that even for creationists, a Scriptural passage cannot be considered to be revealing science if that revelation would be contradictory with what we already know of science.
This brings us to the root problem with this objection. Even if God were to reveal scientific knowledge through the Bible, He would never have expected us to accept it by Biblical authority alone. For suppose He communicated a scientific statement through the Bible. There would then be three logical possibilities:
- Physical reality is accurately described by this scientific statement. But if that were the case, then our investigation of physical reality would be able to confirm this statement independent of its place in the Bible, so that Biblical authority would not be required for it.
- Physical reality is not accurately described by this scientific statement. But in what sense can a scientific statement be said to be true if it does not describe physical reality? Moreover, as above, our investigation of physical reality would be able to reject this statement independent of its place in the Bible, so that it would not stand with Biblical authority but drag Biblical authority down with it.
- Physical reality looks the same whether or not this statement is true. But in what sense can this statement then be said to be scientific? After all, a statement is scientific precisely if reality would look different if it were wrong. "Atoms" are scientific because we know that our universe doesn't look like a universe without atoms; "heaven" is not scientific because we don't know what our universe would look like if there was no heaven.
The Bible, then, is clearly not a trustworthy medium for scientific messages. To creationists themselves, Biblical authority or hermeneutics don't determine what is scientific in Scripture - that is determined by what they already knew to be scientific before they even opened their Bibles. And if God Himself built the universe so that scientific statements can be tested independent of their presence in Scripture - then why would He clutter His Book with unnecessary words? The only conclusion that is left is that God Himself intended for us to find out scientific truths simply by experimenting on reality; and if reality shows us something different from our interpretation of the Bible, then our interpretation of the Bible must be wrong, since scientific statements are not intrinsically necessary to its message.
The Bible tells us how to go to heaven, not how the heavens go; and if the heavens can testify to God, can they not also testify for themselves, so much smaller than the infinite God they praise?
Answer 3: It is neither efficient nor necessary for Scripture to be made to carry science - as such, it is not proper for an interpretation of Scripture to overrule well-done science.
note: this doesn't yet address the issue of
historicity, although the issue of scientific communication is closely related. That's for Article #4.