Statistics question

[philadiddle]

It was a couple years ago that I took my stats class so I need a refresher on something. Let's say you have 2 sets of numbers, one is from 1 to 1,000,000 and the other is 1 - 1,000,000,000.

We want to randomly pick a number from each set. Each number has an equal chance of being picked and the outcome from picking from one set does not affect the outcome of picking from another set.

What are the chances of randomly landing on 100 for set 1 and set 2? Is it 1,000,000,000,000,000 (1,000,000 x 1,000,000,000)?

Thanks.

 

[acropolis]

Probabilities are always between 0 and 1. I think the answer is the inverse of what you wrote: (1/1,000,000)(1/1,000,000,000).

 

[Tinker Grey]

I think acropolis is correct.

 

[AlexBP]

Yes. The probability of two events both occurring is equal to the probabilities of each occurring individually multiplied. (Assuming that the events are independent, that is to say that the occurrence of one doesn't make the occurrence of the other more or less likely.) So the probability of getting the number 100 both times is 1/1,000,000 * 1,000,000,000 = 1/1,000,000,000,000,000.

 

[CabVet]

In other words, a very, very low probability.

 

[GrowingSmaller]

In other words, a very, very low probability.

Not to a millipede.