T
Thekla
Guest
Again, the translation from Greek into English is not a "straight shot" - there is rarely a one to one correlation of meaning. Further there are words in the NT who present a straight shot meaning, but gets translated differently.You might find this very difficult to believe, but I have actually looked into a Greek dictionary, a Koine (Hellenistic) Greek dictionary. And I am in entire agreement with the definitions provided for these words. That is, that the words are typically translated as brothers and sisters, meaning sharing the same womb, but also can mean a close associate or relative.
Please explain how it is that every English translation, including your own, consistently translates these as the same words if, in fact, the accurate translation is something else. It would seem to me that the multitude of translators who have a much better grasp of the language and cultural nuances than either you or I will ever to honestly be able to claim, were either mistaken or were intentionally deceptive in their translations, if these passages were mistranslated.
The bottom line is that there is biblical support, not implication but direct support, to the notion that Mary may well not have remained a virgin following the birth of Jesus Christ.
My dad, a protestant minister fluent in Koine and holding three graduate degrees in theology believes that Mary is ever-virgin. My mother, a first generation Greek (Greek protestants, btw) who read the Gospel in Koine believes Mary to be ever-virgin.
As before, translators make choices, and also fail to recognise there is a choice to be made where there is an univestigated 'default' understanding.
But the question does remain: how is Lot's uncle also his brother ?
(More examples upon request.)
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