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What do you think about this;
I was wondering then, how people who believe that Mary is in heaven, know this? The bible doesn't say. Certainly tradition says so, but why? Is it because of OSAS?
Albeit we do not really know about Mary, but OSAS says she's there.
So yes, it's all speculation?
Yes, a close friend was asked by her (RC) church to pray for a man's
cancer but to pray TO a woman who'd passed because "she" needed
so many miracles attributed to her name to attain 'sainthood"
My friend suggestted (and my point too for this thread)
that IF the man's cancer left, that would prove nothing
about the deceased woman's saintliness.
Neighbors or relatives could be praying
... To God.
That doesnt make sense."OSAS" doesn't say that anyone is there. We do not know who has passed on to glory, just as we do not know who is among God's elect. We can make reasonable guesses, as with Mary, though.
What do you think about this;
I was wondering then, how people who believe that Mary is in heaven, know this? The bible doesn't say. Certainly tradition says so, but why? Is it because of OSAS?
Albeit we do not really know about Mary, but OSAS says she's there.
Well they don't need to 'ask'.Not so much.
The reason being - the person asking 'the person in line for canonization' - doesnt usually ask anyone else to pray for them.
Its a matter of prudence.. if they wish to assist in the process - they dont seek prayers from anyone else.
Statement made by Thekla earlier:
Physical hearing is a matter of proximity; spiritual hearing is not an effect of physical proximity (as in the man from Macedoniki praying Paul who was not in physical proximity to the man). Paul heard the man's prayer to him in God; ie "heard/saw" above time and space (which is bound with time and to our perception of it).
According to my tradition, Jesus remained without sin.According to Tradition - Mary remained without sin.
That was her part [effort] - and it was unlike Eve who was without sin - but sinned and all of humanity fell.
True and indeed.Well they don't need to 'ask'.
See:
According to my tradition, Jesus remained without sin.
That was His part
UNLIKE the first adam who sinned and all of humanity suffered.
How'd Mary take the part of Eve?True and indeed.
He took Adams part to undo what was done [Adam means man - how cool is that?]
And His Mother took the part of Eve [which means mother of all - its still cool] - to assist in undoing what the 1st couple did.
What do you think about this;
I was wondering then, how people who believe that Mary is in heaven, know this? The bible doesn't say. Certainly tradition says so, but why? Is it because of OSAS?
Albeit we do not really know about Mary, but OSAS says she's there.
So yes, it's all speculation?
I'm not RC, so I cannot comment on their method, as I don't know about it from 'within'.Yes, a close friend was asked by her (RC) church to pray for a man's
cancer but to pray TO a woman who'd passed because "she" needed
so many miracles attributed to her name to attain 'sainthood"
My friend suggestted (and my point too for this thread)
that IF the man's cancer left, that would prove nothing
about the deceased woman's saintliness.
Neighbors or relatives could be praying
... To God.
"OSAS" doesn't say that anyone is there. We do not know who has passed on to glory, just as we do not know who is among God's elect. We can make reasonable guesses, as with Mary, though.
The empirical evidence - answered prayers ...
This what you said right here I wanted to look at Thelks. In my earlier days I would be making more of a comparison to the queen of heaven in quoting the below, but Im not in this case, its what they said at the base of each verse that got me thinking myself
For example here...
Jerm 44:17 But we will certainly do whatsoever thing goeth forth out of our own mouth (orally in what we say in contrast to the prophet) to burn incense unto the queen of heaven, and to pour out drink offerings unto her, as we have done ( traditionally so, as) we, and our fathers, our kings, and our princes, in the cities of Judah, and in the streets of Jerusalem: for then (our benefits were noticible to us, for) had we plenty of victuals, and were well, and saw no evil.
So they point out their plenty and seeing no evil in doing that contrary to what the prophets tell them not to do
But they also point out their lack after leaving off of doing this too
Jerm 44:18 But since we left off to burn incense to the queen of heaven, and to pour out drink offerings unto her, we have wanted all things, and have been consumed by the sword and by the famine.
I find this particularly odd myself. Like I might say the same thing, evidence is in answered prayers somewhat, or plenty (and no evil) verses in want of all things and them linking the two (in their reasoning).
Thats not what I used to look at before but what come to my eye, and that was the first thing I thought of when you posted that.
Ever notice this?
I was just trying to sort it out. I wasn't joking LOL
A text taken out of context is a pretext for prooftext.Consider the witness of Scripture that I've posted ...
Because 'saint's' are not omniscient.How is it known in your experience that when the prayers of neighbors and relatives are answered, there were not also Saints, their earthly sojourn completed, also praying ?
Healing comes from God, amen.Ultimately, it is God who effects the healing, etc.
Oh most definitely!Heaven is a Kingdom; God has always sought and used human involvement
Yes ... and indeed Satan is not wont to attack (bring trouble) to those already "his". It's those who are tending toward or of God who tend to attract Satan's attacks ...
Nor is Christianity the only 'faith' that claims healings and miracles (not involving Saints, but some considered healers within other faiths).
Your question applies to any kind of miracle or healing - both by the prayers of Saints and of saints (those still "on earth", biologically alive).
But there is a feature that is not found in the healings etc. in other faiths -- the pointing to Christ. For example, Muslims have been converted to Christianity 'through' Mary; her prayers answered to heal some who profess Islam.
When Christians ask Saints for their prayers, it is within a context of prayer to and worship of God. (In the EO, the Paraklesis and Akathist services are typical prayer-forms for asking a Saint for prayer -- these always begin with worship of God, Psalms, prayers, and the attention to God is also interspersed in these services.)
How do those who ask their Christian neighbors, relatives, etc. to pray for them or lay hands on them for healing know the healing they receive is of God ?
This what you said right here I wanted to look at Thelks. In my earlier days I would be making more of a comparison to the queen of heaven in quoting the below, but Im not in this case, its what they said at the base of each verse that got me thinking myself
For example here...
Jerm 44:17 But we will certainly do whatsoever thing goeth forth out of our own mouth (orally in what we say in contrast to the prophet) to burn incense unto the queen of heaven, and to pour out drink offerings unto her, as we have done ( traditionally so, as) we, and our fathers, our kings, and our princes, in the cities of Judah, and in the streets of Jerusalem: for then (our benefits were noticible to us, for) had we plenty of victuals, and were well, and saw no evil.
So they point out their plenty and seeing no evil in doing that contrary to what the prophets tell them not to do
But they also point out their lack after leaving off of doing this too
Jerm 44:18 But since we left off to burn incense to the queen of heaven, and to pour out drink offerings unto her, we have wanted all things, and have been consumed by the sword and by the famine.
I find this particularly odd myself. Like I might say the same thing, evidence is in answered prayers somewhat, or plenty (and no evil) verses in want of all things and them linking the two (in their reasoning).
Thats not what I used to look at before but what come to my eye, and that was the first thing I thought of when you posted that.
Ever notice this?
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