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That's more than just interceding.
Which one's are too much then? Please provide examples of the one's that you feel cross some kind of line...and explain where/how they do so...
It's not an assumption. It's what's written in the passage. "Blessed are you among women" means she's the most blessed of women. Eve, being the first woman, was among those who Mary is more blessed then, and she was born sinless. Since Mary is most blessed, she was born that way, too. It follows logically.
Also the Title "Full of Grace" given by Gabriel regarded past, present and future.
I provided our proof of her sinlessness...Regarding her life, every bit of her life we see, she's obeying God. Regarding her childhood, we have evidence that, when she was old enough to leave home, she lived in the temple in Jerusalem. If she was two and told a lie, in our system, she wasn't culpable for sin. Besides which, the grammar used by the Angel Gabriel is that she was blessed in the past, in the present, and in the future. That's our proof.
Mary isn't able to give blessings, grace, or protection. We ask her intercession. It's God and Jesus that provide.
You see that as a title. I see that as a statement. Perhaps had Jesus said "Mary, Full of Grace, here is your son..." I'd be able to give you that one.
Imagining, then making into dogma, such as the--
Immaculate Conception
Assumption of Mary bodily into heaven
"Ever-Virgin"
"Dispenser of all graces"
"Co-redeemer" of the world with Jesus
etc.
That's questionable. The rosary is a devotion to Mary. It was allegedly given to mankind by Mary. She will dispense the graces or favors that come to those who pray the rosary. The only attention it affords Christ is that one is supposed to meditate on events in his life while saying the rosary.
Begin with the ones I listed the last time I answered that question. Post 378.
Even if "full of grace" is accepted instead of other translations, it doesn't mean sinlessness, and if we were to go so far as to agree that it does...that still in no way proves that there was any "Immaculate Conception."
Why would it have to be a matter of her conception, in other words?
You're talking about something else now. I was referring to the fact that the people who cross the line with their Marian devotions think that what they are doing is good and proper. I am saying that, despite those well-intended motives, the actions still can be improper. Therefore, we have to discuss the devotions themselves and not confuse that with the good intentions of the people doing them.
It's not a matter of "How much?" but of "What kind?"
I'm sure it is not. The issue, again, is strictly a matter of WHAT is done by them.
Let's discuss the devotionals, not the people doing them.
Full of Grace implies that there is no room for anything other than grace...i.e sin...
Her Immacualte Conception would go hand-in-hand
That is a customary way of looking at it, and I acknowleged that even though I know that the meaning is "has found favor with God."
However, if we take your explanation, it still doesn't change anything.
Ah. "hand in hand." Like "cue" before it, that means you understand that there is no real connection but you'd like to make it seem that there is.
No, there is nothing that makes for any Immaculate Conception out of those words.
So, then...what is your explaination?
No, there is real connection...as long as you see the truth of the first part.
Even if "full of grace" is accepted instead of other translations, it doesn't mean sinlessness, and if we were to go so far as to agree that it does...that still in no way proves that there was any "Immaculate Conception."
Why would it have to be a matter of her conception, in other words?
Would you agree to the claim that Mary was immaculate at the time the angel said that she was? If so, how many chances would God have had in the previous fifteen or so years to cleanse Mary from sin?
.
Mary was immaculate before, during and after, as Gabriel said.Would you agree to the claim that Mary was immaculate at the time the angel said that she was? If so, how many chances would God have had in the previous fifteen or so years to cleanse Mary from sin?
No. There is no real connection in any case.
So you believe that Mary was without sin for what period of time? The day before until the day after she gave birth to the Lord? The day of? If you believe that she was sinless at the annunciation...why would you try to argue against the Immaculate Conception?
I was saying that I'd see that as a "Title" had Christ used it as such. That wasn't an admission that I'd believe in her sinlessness, only that I'd consider the title offical.
What is your answer to my question?
Do I believe she was without sin at the time of the annunciation?
This was the question:
"Would you agree to the claim that Mary was immaculate at the time the angel said that she was? If so, how many chances would God have had in the previous fifteen or so years to cleanse Mary from sin?"
Then in YOUR opinion, how much 'veneration' is considered worship?Oh I know good is intended and it's not done out of hate. Just explaining how it's received. How much veneration is too much? Again I'm reading how much love is too much. Is that even possible to have too much love as long as it does not exceed what one gives the Lord? I assure you that my wife get's more attention from me than Mary does. And I don't give my wife what she deserves. The neighbor lady says i worship the ground my wife walks on. She's so wrong. All I have for my wife is love. My worship goes in only one direction.
Loving those who are no longer here on earth with us shouldn't be that foreign a concept even to the non-believer. I mean if your mom dies, you don't stop loving her. Only George Jones sang that song. RIP George.
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