You are implying that people whose morals are consistent with the Bible can afford health insurance. What's more, you are implying that 170 million people (the number that can afford health insurance) have morals consistent with the Bible! Prove it - show us some figures that indicate that 170 million people who can afford health insurance have Bible-consistent moralities. Otherwise, this is a ridiculous claim purely because of its broad assumptions.
Wow. So 170 million people who can afford health insurance have values consistent with the Bible, but 30 million people who cannot afford health insurance cannot afford it due to sin? Your speculations would be amusing Clirus if they were not so patently absurd.
Besides that, you are contradicting yourself
again!
You said:
(A) The purpose of the Book of Job was to show that poverty was not a proof of sin, yet you seem to be saying being rich is proof of sin
Followed closely by:
(B) I believe the disease, death, destruction and poverty is the result of the sin and not because someone refuses to help.
And more recently:
Atheists and the Atheistic Lifestyle produce disease, death, destruction and poverty.
Sin leads to disease, death, destruction and poverty.
If A, then not B. You claimed that "poverty was not a proof of sin" while many of your other claims assume that poverty
is a proof of sin. You, sir or madam, are contradicting yourself! For example, in this
thread, you unjustifiably interpreted lack of healthcare coverage to be indicative of sinfulness, and inferred that the 30 million uninsured Americans were sinful. You therefore assumed that their lack, their poverty, was proof of sin! Conversely, you inferred that the 170 million Americans with coverage were Bible-abiding persons. You therefore assumed that their possessions (health insurance) were indicative of their fidelity to Scripture! In this way you contradict your own claim that "poverty [is] not proof of sin" by conjecturing that a people's poverty (in this case, lack of healthcare coverage) is indicative of their sin! It's like saying, 'Being poor isn't proof that you're a criminal, but because you're poor I'm going to assume that you are a criminal.'
So how do you account for this self-contradiction?
The State cannot take any stance on sin (soft or hard approach) without expressly violating the Separation of Church and State.
But the State has no compelling reason (for neither safety or economics) to rebuke/eliminate some things that the Church calls sin.
And I believe that a person who claims that "that poverty [is] not proof of sin" and that "poverty is the result of sin" is contradicting themselves.