Hi! I'll get straight to the point, not meaning to offend any one.
If I do, I'm sorry. Is oral or anal sex considered sodomy with your wife?
If I do, I'm sorry. Is oral or anal sex considered sodomy with your wife?
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Sodomy
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Diane_Windsor
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sodomy: noncoital and especially anal or oral copulation with a member of the opposite sex
According to Webster's definition above it is.
According to Webster's definition above it is.
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Wilfred of Ivanhoe
Lord, Humble Me
I don't do any of these things with my spouse, but how does the scripture define sodomy?
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I can't think of anywhere that scripture uses the word sodomy, much less defines it.
Scripture is not a dictionary. It does not contain definitions of words.
Scripture is not a dictionary. It does not contain definitions of words.
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herev
CL--you are missed!
by public, legal definition, yes, that is considered sodomy, it is against the scriptures--I really don't think so--God made sex pleasurable to be enjoyed between husband and wife, how that works, as long as it is not masachistic or harmful to one partner or the other should be between them. Consensual is the word I guess I'm looking for.bottomline said:
of course, as alwasy, that's jsut my humble opinion.
Might want to read:
by James B. Nelson--gives good thought provoking answers to many questions--=I don't agree with everything he says, but overall , good thought process.OR:
if you're interested in further study.
Tommy
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The word didn't exist so it isn't clearly defined. In Deteronomy, and later in 1 Corinthians, the word is mistranslated in some translations as 'sodomite' whereas 'male temple prostitute' is more accurate.
In legal terms, it is usually used to define anal intercourse, but has been used to describe any variety of sexual practices, looking at the record of historians of sexuality in the 19th century and before.
In legal terms, it is usually used to define anal intercourse, but has been used to describe any variety of sexual practices, looking at the record of historians of sexuality in the 19th century and before.
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herev said:
I thought of that verse as I was posting. Do you really think it is a definition, or a statement about faith? Could you substitute this definition each time the word "faith" appears in scripture? No. I don't think so.
This verse says something true about faith, but is not an exhaustive definition.
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The word sodomy comes from the name of city that God destroyed, Sodom. The city was destroyed by God not ONLY because of various homosexual immorality, but because people become careless and didn't fear God.
The Bible tells how angels came to the city, and Lot invited them to lodge in his house. THey accept the offer. Then later, men of the city come to Lot's house and demand that he open the door so that they may capture the strangers and KNOW THEM CARNALLY, that means to know them in a sexual way. That is wht NEW King James version says. Old King james says "so we may KNOW them" which means exactly the same thing.
If you look at New International Version, which has modernized language it says I QUOTE:
"Before they had gone to bed, all the men from every part of the city of Sodom-both young and old- surrounded the house. They called to Lot, 'where are teh MEN who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us so that we can have sex with them."
WHy does this imply UNNATURAL intercourse with other than genital areas of the body? Because since it is men looking for men that Lot had at his house, it can ONLY be unnnatural. That is why Sodomy implies anal intercourse and homosexual intercourse, but ALSO this would mean RAPE, since it is against someone's will.
I don't remember having seen passages that would touch on specific rules on men and women.
The Bible tells how angels came to the city, and Lot invited them to lodge in his house. THey accept the offer. Then later, men of the city come to Lot's house and demand that he open the door so that they may capture the strangers and KNOW THEM CARNALLY, that means to know them in a sexual way. That is wht NEW King James version says. Old King james says "so we may KNOW them" which means exactly the same thing.
If you look at New International Version, which has modernized language it says I QUOTE:
"Before they had gone to bed, all the men from every part of the city of Sodom-both young and old- surrounded the house. They called to Lot, 'where are teh MEN who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us so that we can have sex with them."
WHy does this imply UNNATURAL intercourse with other than genital areas of the body? Because since it is men looking for men that Lot had at his house, it can ONLY be unnnatural. That is why Sodomy implies anal intercourse and homosexual intercourse, but ALSO this would mean RAPE, since it is against someone's will.
I don't remember having seen passages that would touch on specific rules on men and women.
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ksen said:Can you show me some Scripture saying what a husband and wife can or can't do in the privacy of their own bedroom?
Sex is for reproduction, but while you do it you should do it freely and enjoy it. If you do it in various "OTHER" ways , if you know what I mean, it is no longer for reproduction.
I may well be missing some passages.
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So sex is ONLY for reproduction? This is a much better excuse than the "I have a headache" haha- no, I dont feel like having kids right now. 
Seriously though, do most Christians consider oral sex to be another form of sodomy? Or is sodomy a term used to refer only to anal sex?
Seriously though, do most Christians consider oral sex to be another form of sodomy? Or is sodomy a term used to refer only to anal sex?
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I always thought sodomy is referred to as anal sex. I don't think oral sex has anything to do with sodomy.
I hope not!!
I hope not!!
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