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mkgal1

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I believe it takes two goats to demonstrate Jesus' crucifixion because of the paradox (He is both the victor over death - but also the "victim" of death and the One taking on sin all at the same time). This devotion - I believe - expresses that concept well:


Quoting Jesus as the Scapegoat: The book of Revelation presents the paradoxical image of a Lamb who is simultaneously slaughtered and standing, victim and victorious at the same time (see Revelation 5:6 and throughout). This is the transformative mystery in iconic form. We must put together these two seeming opposites in our own life.

Was God trying to solve a problem through what looked like the necessary death of Jesus? Or was God trying to reveal something central about the nature of God? Christians have historically taught that God was saving us from our sins. Maybe an even better way to say it is that Jesus was saving us through our sins. As Paul says with great subtlety, Jesus “became sin that we might become the very goodness of God” (2 Corinthians 5:21). In other words, Jesus becomes the problem to show us how to resolve the problem.

We are generally inclined to either create victims of others or play the victim ourselves, both of which are no solution but only perpetuate the problem. Jesus instead holds the pain—even becomes the pain—until it transforms him into a higher state, which we rightly call the risen life.

The crucified and resurrected Jesus shows us how to do this without denying, blaming, or projecting pain elsewhere. In fact, there is no “elsewhere.” Jesus is the victim in an entirely new way because he receives our hatred and does not return it, nor does he play the victim for his own empowerment. We find no self-pity or resentment in Jesus. He never asks his followers to avenge his murder. He suffers and does not make others suffer because of it. He does not use his suffering and death as power over others to punish them, but as power for others to transform them. ~ ~ https://cac.org/forgiving-victim-2017-05-03/
 
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Pneuma3

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Where is there anything in that verse about Yom Kipper?

Do a study on the word propitiation.


The Yom Kipper “shadow” was not for all sins (Heb. 9) and it was for “the people” referring to the Jews of the time those under The Law.


agnóēma is only used once in scripture and many other bibles simply translate it as error.
it means a thing ignored, ie shortcoming, error.

thus it could very well mean that they knew of their sins but ignored them, just like many do today.

And by reading Hebrew 9 and 10 it pretty much sums it all up that it was done ONCE and for ALL.
 
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mkgal1

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Bling said:
He was not crucified to just replace Yom Kipper.
I'm not certain what you mean here. Can you elaborate? I don't think that's really anyone's argument (that Jesus was crucified "to replace" Yom Kippur).
 
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mkgal1

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Bling said:
Is God the one being moved toward man or is man being moved toward God through atonement?
This is a good question, I think.

I am of the belief that John Duns Scotus (and the Franciscans) have it right when they say: "Jesus did not come to change the mind of God about humanity; Jesus came to change the mind of humanity about God." ~ https://cac.org/incarnation-instead-of-atonement-2016-02-12/
 
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mkgal1

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Do you not realize it is Jesus Himself, as our High Priest, who will place all the sins that He paid for on the head of Satan
Where are you even getting that from?

That does so much violence to Christ's work on the cross. He "took on sin" - "became sin" for us. He didn't "scapegoat" our sin and send it off into the wilderness.

Quoting Fr Richard Rohr ~
In Leviticus 16 we see the brilliant ritualization of what we now call scapegoating, and we should indeed feel sorry for the demonized goat. On the Day of Atonement, a priest laid hands on an “escaping” goat, placing all the sins of the Jewish people from the previous year onto the animal. Then the goat was beaten with reeds and thorns, and driven out into the desert. And the people went home rejoicing, just as European Christians did after burning a supposed heretic at the stake. Whenever the “sinner” is excluded, our ego is delighted and feels relieved and safe. It sort of works, but only for a while. Usually the illusion only deepens and becomes catatonic, blind, and repetitive—because of course, scapegoating did not really work to eliminate the evil in the first place.

Jesus came to radically undo this illusory scapegoat mechanism.
 
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bling

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Do a study on the word propitiation.

OK, but it is only used twice, only by John and only concerning Christ’s atoning sacrifice, so it is hard to be sure of the exact definition.

What you need to show is how the sin offerings on Yom Kipper were propitiation of God’s wrath?




If they “ignored” sins they were aware of making why would they even care about participating in Yom Kipper and with that kind of intentional sinful heart would God allow them to participate?

No, it would mean: they did not know the Law will enough to know they had sinned (ignored God’s law or ignorance of God’s Law). It might be called an error on their part, but ignorance of the Law is no excuse even in todays court.

What Christ did was: “once and for all”, but it was not done just to stop the Yom Kipper sacrifices.

Can we agree, there seems to be three types or even degrees of sin addressed in the Old Testament:

The first group of sins are unintentional sins (mistakes done hastily) and there was an atonement process in Lev. 5 which explains how these could be atoned for and forgiven by God.

The second group were more planed out, intentional sins directly against God, yet could seemingly be “minor”, but are hugely significant like intentionally picking up sticks for a fire on the Sabbath. These sins had no atonement process and were to be dealt with swiftly and without mercy resulting in banishment or death. (These sins everyone was committing and mature adults still commit today, so we are all deserving of severe punishment).

The third group of sins were done in ignorance (for whatever reason) and unlike the unintentional sins which the sinner became aware of later (Lev. 5 but then they learn of it and realize their guilt— 5 when anyone becomes aware that they are guilty in any of these matters, they must confess in what way they have sinned. 6 As a penalty for the sin they have committed), these sins they still seem ignorant of.

These sins of ignorance where atoned for with the Yom Kipper sacrifice.

Jesus’ sacrifice does not just replace the Yom Kipper sacrificing, but is the atonement sacrifice of any and all sins (especially intentional sins which had no atonement).
 
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bling

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Right, we need to see God as our Loving Father lovingly justly disciplining us for all the benefit that come with being disciplined.
 
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eleos1954

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On the Day of Atonement, two goats were necessary. One was "for the Lord" (Leviticus 16:7) to provide the atonement through the shedding of his blood; the other was "for Azazel" (Leviticus 16:8).

***

These two were, in the text, placed in antithesis. One typified our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ, who was slain as our substitute and vicariously bore our sins, with all the guilt and punishment entailed. Thus He made complete atonement for our sins.

The other goat, seems to be for satan, who is eventually to have responsibility not only his own sins, but the responsibility for all the sins he has caused others to commit.

Two important points involved are to be particularly noted: (1) that the transaction with the live goat (or Azazel) took place after the atonement for the sins of the people had been accomplished, and the reconciliation completed; and (2) that the live goat was not
slain, and did not provide any propitiation or make any vicarious atonement.

Without the shedding of blood there is no remission (Hebrews 9:22). None of the blood of the live goat was shed, or poured out in propitiation, and none was taken into the sanctuary and sprinkled before the Lord, or placed on the horns of the altar.

Satan makes no atonement for our sins. But Satan (has a short time) and will ultimately have to bear the retributive punishment for his responsibility in the sins of all men, both righteous and wicked.

Perhaps it symbolizes that satan (the scapegoat) is still is able to operate in the world from a wilderness realm (having a short time), so in a sense he is still let go ... but ultimately will be destroyed completely when Gods plan is fully complete.

Not sure ... but it is clear one was for the Lord and slain .... and the other one was not for the Lord and was not slain. So it makes sense the one not slain is for an opposite purpose ... and the opposite of God is satan.

The scapegoat lived for a short time, however was eventually destroyed.

It's my understanding the scapegoat was followed and eventually pushed off a cliff and made sure it was ultimately destroyed.
 
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mkgal1

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The other goat, seems to be for satan, who is eventually to have responsibility not only his own sins, but the responsibility for all the sins he has caused others to commit.

Leviticus 16:10 ~ "But the goat on which the lot for the scapegoat fell shall be presented alive before the LORD, to make atonement upon it, to send it into the wilderness as the scapegoat.​
 
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mkgal1

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Jesus suffered for our sin. I don't see ANYWHERE in the Bible where it's stated that Satan will (in the future) be punished for sin. It's already been "taken away" as stated in Scripture:

1 Peter 3:18 ~ Christ suffered for our sins once for all time [there's no mention of Satan being punished for what Christ has already suffered]*. He never sinned, but he died for sinners to bring you safely home to God. He suffered physical death, but he was raised to life in the Spirit.

1 Peter 2:24 ~ He Himself bore our sins [like the living goat]* in His body on the tree, so that we might die to sin and live to righteousness. “By His stripes you are healed.”

** Bracketed words my own, in case that's not clear.
 
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eleos1954

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Leviticus 16:10 ~ "But the goat on which the lot for the scapegoat fell shall be presented alive before the LORD, to make atonement upon it, to send it into the wilderness as the scapegoat.​

yeah I know .... Christ is the way to receive atonement, His sacrifice made at-one-ment with God possible, however not everybody will receive it, because not everyone will believe in Christ, some will fall away etc.

The scapegoat bore in its flesh not the penalty for sin, but the responsibility for sin. The protracted death of the scapegoat represents the lingering death that Lucifer will suffer at the end of time. As a predator, he has caused an incalculable amount of sorrow, suffering, pain, and death and he must pay for his actions.

All of the suffering associated with the sins that were transferred to the temple will end up on Lucifer’s head! When Lucifer’s suffering finally ends in the lake of fire, God’s justice will be satisfied and atonement for what he has done will be fully complete for eternity.
 
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eleos1954

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Satan and his minions will be thrown into the lake of fire and punished/destroyed ... along with the unsaved, it hasn't happened yet.
 
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Pneuma3

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OK, but it is only used twice, only by John and only concerning Christ’s atoning sacrifice, so it is hard to be sure of the exact definition.

What you need to show is how the sin offerings on Yom Kipper were propitiation of God’s wrath?

I don't do everyone's work for them, I gave enough info in my OP for people to look these things up.
However when time allows I will show where propitiation is used more then once in scripture.

If they “ignored” sins they were aware of making why would they even care about participating in Yom Kipper and with that kind of intentional sinful heart would God allow them to participate?

They did not participate in Yom Kipper, no work was to be done.


The rest of your post is simply you misunderstanding my posts because I never said anything about Jesus replacing Yom Kipper.
 
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Pneuma3

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Leviticus 16:10 ~ "But the goat on which the lot for the scapegoat fell shall be presented alive before the LORD, to make atonement upon it, to send it into the wilderness as the scapegoat.


You simply missed the point. the scapegoat was for ATONEMENT.
 
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eleos1954

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You simply missed the point. the scapegoat was for ATONEMENT.

and there are these points:

Hebrews 8

22 For the life of a creature is in the blood, and I have given it to you to make an atonement for your souls upon the altar, since it is the lifeblood that makes atonement.

The scapegoats blood was not shed.

Leviticus 16:20, 21 And when he has made an end of atoning for the Holy Place, the tabernacle of meeting, and the altar, he shall bring the live goat.

The scapegoat (live goat) was brought AFTER the atoning (slain goat).

Leviticus 16:20, 21 And when he has made an end of atoning for the Holy Place, the tabernacle of meeting, and the altar, he shall bring the live goat. Aaron shall lay both his hands on the head of the live goat, confess over it all the iniquities of the children of Israel, and all their transgressions, concerning all their sins, putting them on the head of the goat, and shall send it away into the wilderness by the hand of a suitable man.”

Note: It is shown that Satan is the responsible agent in sin. The scapegoat, which represents Satan, in no way bears, or pays for, our sins. Only Christ [1 John 1:7] bears the penalty for sin [Isaiah 53]. That's why Lord's goat was slain. Jesus alone "taketh away the sin of the world" [John 1:29]. Scapegoat comes after END of atoning for the people by the blood of the Lord's goat. This service simply shows that Satan is the final responsible agent in sin. He is charged with the sins that he lead the redeemed to commit.

Scapegoat contaminates
Leviticus 16:26 And he that let go the goat for the scapegoat shall wash his clothes, and bathe his flesh in water, and afterward come into the camp”

Note: Another reason why the Scapegoat cannot represent Christ is because it contaminated people who came into contact with it. Surely, this can’t be a symbol Christ (John 1:29).
 
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mkgal1

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Not sure ... but it is clear one was for the Lord and slain .... and the other one was not for the Lord and was not slain. So it makes sense the one not slain is for an opposite purpose ... and the opposite of God is satan.
The biblical text states that BOTH goats are an offering to the LORD.

You're right about them representing opposite meaning, though (but seem to be off in what oppostites are the focus). The way you're understanding it, our sins are yet to be forgiven (because you are placing part of the ritual off in the future). Jesus already stated, "It is finished".

As I posted earlier, I think Rev 5:6 sheds more light on the paradox of the two goats. What is in opposition is death and life. Jesus' death overcame death. He was victorious over death. He was both the lamb that was slain AND the one that carried our sin (and continued to LIVE).

It is finished. Your sin is atoned for.
 
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mkgal1

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You're saying the scapegoat represents Satan - that he will be killed later for ALL sin.... because he is the "responsible agent in sin". That would then mean we were always innocent (bore no responsibility for sin) - and Jesus then died for the sake of Satan.
 
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eleos1954

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"It is finished. Your sin is atoned for." Yes, for believers ... not for unbelievers.

There are more believers yet to come ... until the Lord comes back.

If they (both goats) were representing Christ ... then why are Lots cast upon the two goats? One lot is for the “Lord’s” goat (without blemish) and the other is for “Azazel” [the scapegoat] (imperfect).
 
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