Being the Messiah and being the Son of God are two different things. I know many Christians who refer to God as 'our father', does this make their claim literal? Similarly when one calls them-self a 'child of God', is it the same? There are many statements that Jesus (as) makes that refer to God as being superior to him:
You asserted that Paul was responsible for manufacturing the idea that Christ was divine and I showed you from the Gospels that he was not. In three different passages in the Gospel of John alone, the Jews recognize that Jesus was claiming equality with God. They were so incensed by this they tried to stone Jesus. Since Christ's divinity was declared so plainly by Christ himself, it is not correct to say that Paul artificially put such a construction on the person of Christ.
Yes, God is literally the Heavenly Father to those who are saved. Does this make Christians literally divine? No, Christians are
adopted children, as Paul the apostle explains. Just like an asian child adopted by caucasian parents doesn't suddenly become caucasian, neither do human beings adopted by God the Father suddenly become divine. But the Bible teaches that those of us who are saved are "joint-heirs with Christ" and that we have been "given the Spirit of adoption whereby we cry, 'Abba. Father.'" (Ro. 8) While there is no change in our physical nature when we are saved - that is, we remain human - there is a profound change in the relational dynamic between creature and Creator.
Why does Jesus refer to God the Father as superior? Well, let me explain from the verses you referenced.
John 5:30
30 I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father who has sent me.
As God in the flesh, Christ became a man and in so doing "humbled himself." This humbling, in part, involved setting aside his heavenly glory, power and position. In order to be a human being and the designated sacrifice for Man's sin, Christ adopted an "inferior" position to God the Father. This was an inferiority of role or function, however, not nature. One can still observe the unity of God the Father and God the Son in the singularity of purpose, of will, expressed in Christ's words above. Rather than indicating a difference between Christ and God the Father, the verse you cite actually reinforces their homogeneity.
Luke 11:20
20 But if I cast out demons with the finger of God, surely the kingdom of God has come upon you.
I'm not sure why you use this verse as an indication of Christ's inferiority to God the Father. In context, the verse is part of an explanation Christ is giving to the Pharisees about his unity with God. If Christ is casting out demons with the finger of God, wouldn't that suggest that he is like God rather than different from Him? It certainly seems so to me...
John 14:28
28 You have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If you loved me, you would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.
It is a simple truism that the sender is "greater" than the one who is sent. The Master of a house sends his servant to accomplish some task. In nature, the servant and Master are the same (they are both human beings), but in role the Master is greater than the servant. In this respect, Christ, the one sent as a sacrifice for our sins, is "inferior" to God who sent Christ to be the sacrifice. Again, this is a matter of role, not nature.
Matthew 19:16-17
16 Now behold, one came and said to Him, "Good Teacher, what good thing shall I do that I may have eternal life?"
17 So He said to him, "Why do you call Me good? No one is good but One, that is, God. But if you want to enter into life, keep the commandments."
Christ is asking here that, if the young ruler is calling him good, and there is only One who is good, who is God, then is the young man calling him God? In other words, Jesus responds to the young ruler's characterization of him as good by asking essentially, "Are you saying that I am God?" This passage, then, doesn't serve as a useful means of establishing a distinction in nature between Christ and God the Father.
The verses you have offered must be understood within the broader context of all Scripture. Separating them out from this broader, qualifying context severely diminishes one's ability to properly interpret what a particular verse is actually communicating.
This, combined with the understanding of Monotheism clear in the Old Testament,
Even in the OT there is evidence that God was not One in the Arian sense of the word.
See:
The Trinity in the Old Testament
means that it is far more likely that the former statements (those apparently applying divinity) are those that are misinterpreted, rather than the latter.
I'm not sure here to what you are referring...
It is indeed a far leap to believe that the indivisible God of the Old Testament would suddenly change to the fractured and confused theology that is needed to justify Jesus's divinity.
In fact, as the above web link explains, it is no leap at all. There has been no fracturing and confusion, but, instead, a fuller revealing and clarifying of the nature of God.
Peace.