I said:
"Phil,
Your view that the Holy Spirit is given at water baptism which saves the soul is refuted by Scripture.
Did you repent of that thought?"
What for? as I didn't write or ever say it.
You had posted previously that the Holy Spirit was given at water baptism. But now you seem to have changed your mind (repented) of that idea.
Wrong about what?
That receiving the gift of the Holy Ghost comes after repentance from sin?
That is what Peter taught in Acts 2:38.
You are wrong because of the verses I have given you about HOW a person receives the Holy Spirit. But you are so focused on Acts 2:38, which was specific to people who actually and literally voted to put Christ on the cross. What Peter said to that crowd does NOT apply to anyone after that generation. But I don't expect that you will want to change your mind (repent).
Doesn't matter, though. The Bible is clear. The baptism with the Holy Spirit is given to those who believe. In the early days of the church, Gentiles didn't always receive the Spirit immediately. That is no longer the case.
By the time Paul wrote Galatians, EVERYONE received the Spirit through faith.
Gal 3:2,5 proves that. Paul wrote that epistle somewhere between 49 and 55 AD. Why do you refuse to be reasonable and stubbornly focus on a verse (Acts 2:38) that doesn't even apply to anyone after that generation? Focus on Gal 3:2,5 which DOES apply to everyone; Jew and Gentile.
I simply quoted:
"Gal 3-
2 I would like to learn just one thing from you:
Did you receive the Spirit by the works of the law, or by believing what you heard?
5 So again I ask,
does God give you his Spirit and work miracles among you
by the works of the law, or by your believing what you heard.
The answer is clear: by believing what they heard. In fact, Paul makes a very clear point that repentance, found in the works of the law, do NOT result in receiving the Spirit."
You are mistakenly advocating service to two masters, sin and God.
I'm advocating NOTHING of the sort. It seems clear to me that you don't understand English very well if you really believe that nonsense.
How you get "service to sin" from Gal 3:2,5 is just bizarre.
Do you have all the words the Galatians "heard"?
I do have the same epistle that they read (heard).
btw, I know what you are insinuating here. Apparently you think you know what they "heard" but Paul just didn't write down. Is that it?
Why wouldn't Paul speak on repentance and baptism for the remission of sins earlier?
It was NO LONGER applicable. It was applicable ONLY to those who literally acted to put Jesus on a cross.
The Spirit will not inhabit the defiled temple of a sinner.
You don't understand anything in Scripture. And to prove that, I challenge you to cite/quote any verse that actually backs up your opinion here.
I said:
"I've given you examples from Scripture that receiving the Spirit comes from believing in Christ.
Acts 10- the context is Peter preaching the gospel to Cornelius and his household-"
A one time event meant to show the Jews that God had also accepted the Gentiles as His own. (Acts 10:45)
Nonsense. The event here is hardly a "one time event". It is called evangelism, since you seem rather unaware of this. It was an example of HOW people received the Holy Spirit.
BTW, what was the first thing Peter ordered them to do after hearing them speak with tongues?
He commanded them to be baptized. (Acts 10:48)
Sure. And they had ALREADY received the gift of the Holy Spirit. Why don't you admit that?
Speaking in tongues is also mentioned at Cornelius' and the twelve at Ephesus' reception of the gift.
So what?
I said:
"I said:
"So, the 11 saved disciples were saved BEFORE Acts 1:5 occurred.
This alone proves that salvation is not based on water baptism.""
You first say 'no' but then say 'yes", that they were saved before Acts 1?
I really can't deal with your extreme confusion with what I've posted. I NEVER said they weren't saved before Acts 1. Where in the world do you get your confusion from?
You had intimated that they were saved by foot washing.
No, I never did that. That came only from your extreme confusion.
The foot washing was an example of humility, of doing for others what was considered beneath the dignity of most people. Only the LOWEST slave did foot washing. Jesus was showing them by example what true humitity was. Doing for others what others considered way beneath them.
But since Peter was confused (much like yourself), he mistook Jesus' words and wanted Jesus to do MORE than He was doing. He wanted another bath. Jesus used the bath analogy to salvation. He told Peter that he had already had a bath and was "clean". Meaning, you are already saved. Now the issue is fellowship. If you don't let Me wash your feet, you can't have fellowship with Me.
That was the side issue that came from foot washing.
Again, this time it's "no", "yes" they were saved before Acts 1.
I'm just really sorry that you seem so totally confused, even though I've explained very clearly the point of John 13 and Acts 1.
Jesus' 11 disciples (minus Judas) WERE SAVED way before Acts 1. In fact, they were saved by John 6:69,70.
You can forget about "symbolism" and start thinking about it being the reality of our union with Christ.
Well, I would never do what you have been doing: forgetting biblical concepts.
Baptism is how we are "immersed" "INTO CHRIST". (Rom 6:3-6)
Nope, not water baptism. "having believed" is the way, according to Eph 1:13,14.
But you refuse to accept the difference between the baptism of John (water) and the baptism of the Lord Jesus (Holy Spirit baptism which SEALS the believer IN Christ).
2. "Of the doctrine of baptisms..."
More than one.
Yep. There are 7. Can you list them?
Did you catch..."For if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins,
But a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation, which shall devour the adversaries."
More proof that sinners are not "saved".
Not proof of that. What you didn't "catch" is the line; "no more sacrifice for sins". Do you have any idea what that means? Go back to v.18 for a clue.
Sure. Children can be adversaries of their parents. Happens all the time. Or didn't you know that?
Being an adversary doesn't mean being unsaved. It means being in opposition.
Guess who is in opposition to God? ANYONE (look into a mirror) who rejects what the Word of God says so very clearly.