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Romans 1:16 being argued by racial groups

Discussion in 'The Ancient Way - Eastern Orthodox' started by Osmotik, Sep 23, 2020.

  1. Osmotik

    Osmotik Member

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    I am going so far with the Faith and I want to thank everyone here who has helped me come closer to God and understanding, I have also started to attend an Orthodox church.

    Just to get to the point, can someone in this sub forum explain to me Romans 1:16? Is it saying that Jews are more favorite to God still or that Jews were just the first to be called? It is bothering me what people are saying.
     
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  2. Nova2216

    Nova2216 If truth is discounted then lies become normal.

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    Jews first (Acts 2:38,47)

    Gentiles next (Acts 10:48)

    But all men are saved by "WORDS" (Acts 11:14). (Rom. 1:16)

    All men are called by the gospel (Acts 2:21).


    Paul's conversion (Acts 22:16)

    1. Arise
    2. Be Baptized (Acts 8:5,12,13,26-40)
    3. Wash Away Your Sins
    4. Calling On The Name Of The Lord

    Read more here.
    Mission Printing Home Page
     
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  3. Michael Collum

    Michael Collum Everything began with a voice, use yours Supporter

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    Col 3:11 Where there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcision nor uncircumcision, Barbarian, Scythian, bond nor free: but Christ is all, and in all.

    Ga 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.

    Ro 10:12 For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.
     
  4. Nova2216

    Nova2216 If truth is discounted then lies become normal.

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    Both
    (Jew / Gentile) are reconciled to God in one body (one church) according to (Eph. 2:16).

    Eph 2:16 And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby:

    The Body = The Church (Col. 1:18,24) (Eph. 1:22,23)

    Read more here.
    Our Publications
     
  5. hedrick

    hedrick Senior Veteran Supporter

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    Yes, it is, but it’s not Paul’s own opinion. Rom 1 argues that Gentiles are inherently immoral, because of idolatry. But this is one section of a larger argument. Paul was responding to people who wanted Gentiles (non Jews) to become Jewish before they could become Christian. Paul, the apostle to the Gentiles, disagreed. Rom 1 seems to quote his opponents argument. He then responds. The response is in two parts. In Rom 2, he says that some Gentiles have the Law in their hearts. So they aren’t inherently immoral. Rom 3 argues that in any case, Jews have just as much immorality.

    Quoting your opponents argument and then responding was a standar approach in rhetoric, called diatribe style.
     
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  6. Lukaris

    Lukaris Orthodox Christian Supporter

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    I believe Romans 1:16 easily relates to what the Lord told the Samaritan woman in John 4:21-24 since the Lord said “salvation is of the Jews”.
     
  7. ArmyMatt

    ArmyMatt Regular Member Supporter

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    it was taken to the Jew first, since they had the Law, and then to the Gentiles outside of the Law.
     
  8. Charlie24

    Charlie24 Newbie Supporter

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    The answer to your question covers the entire scripture. There are many things that must be known to understand it. I'll give it to you in a nutshell.

    God chose a man named Abraham to become the father of a nation that would introduce The Christ to the world. God formed this nation and called them the apple of His eye.

    The people of this nation are called Jews, the nation is Israel.

    In preparation for Israel to introduce Christ, God gave Israel the Law of God, we call it the Law of Moses, no other nation on earth was given this privilege, it belonged only to Gods chosen people, Israel.

    Through the knowledge of the Law of Moses came salvation to the Jews. Salvation had not been offered to the rest of the world, although many Gentiles were saved.

    The saying from scripture "to the Jew first and also to the Gentile" is referring to salvation being offered first to the Jew and then to the Gentile.

    When Jesus came for Israel to introduce Him to the world, they rejected Him, did not even know He was the Messiah. They failed in their calling from God.

    This is when God chose the church to introduce Christ as the Saviour of the world.

    But Paul tells us that all of Israel shall be saved in the future, that they will yet fulfill their calling.

    But in Christ, as Paul tells us, their is no difference between the Jew and the Gentile.

    The Jews are a special people to God, but they are no more special than anyone else who is in Christ.
     
  9. prodromos

    prodromos Senior Veteran Supporter

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    Just a reminder that this thread was posted in the Eastern Orthodox community sub forum.
     
  10. Justin-H.S.

    Justin-H.S. Retrograde

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    How about St John Chrysostom’s commentary:

    For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believes; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek. - Romans 1:16

    "What do you say, O, Paul? When it were fitting to say, that I boast, and am proud, and luxuriate in it; you say not this, but what is less than this, that you are not ashamed, which is not what we usually say of things very glorious. What then is this which he says, and why does he thus speak? While yet he exults over it more than over heaven. At least, in writing to the Galatians, he said, God forbid that I should glory, save in the Cross of our Lord Jesus Christ. Galatians 6:14 How then comes he here to say, not that I even glory, but that I am not ashamed? The Romans were most anxiously eager about the things of the world, owing to their riches, their empire, their victories; and their kings they reckoned to be equal to the gods, and so they even called them. And for this cause too, they worshipped them with temples and with altars and with sacrifices. Since then they were thus puffed up, but Paul was going to preach Jesus, who was thought to be the carpenter's son, who was brought up in Judea, and that in the house of a mean woman, who had no body guards, who was not encircled in wealth, but even died as a culprit with robbers, and endured many other inglorious things; and it was likely that they were concealing themselves as not as yet knowing any of the unspeakable and great things: for this reason he says, I am not ashamed, having still to teach them not to be ashamed. For he knew that if they succeeded in this, they would speedily go on and come to glorying also: and do you then, if you hear any one saying, Do you worship the Crucified? Be not ashamed, and do not look down, but luxuriate in it, be bright-faced at it, and with the eyes of a free man, and with uplifted look, take up your confession; and if he say again, Do you worship the Crucified? Say in reply to him, Yes! And not the adulterer, not the insulter of his father, not the murderer of his children (for such be all the gods they have ), but Him who by the Cross stopped the mouths of devils, and did away with their countless juggleries. For the Cross is for our sakes, being the work of unspeakable Love towards man, the sign of His great concern for us. And in addition to what has been said, since they were puffed up with great pomposity of speech and with their cloak of external wisdom, I, he means to say, bidding an entire farewell to these reasonings, come to preach the Cross, and am not ashamed because of it: for it is the power of God to salvation. For since there is a power of God to chastisement also (for when He chastised the Egyptians, He said, This is My great power, ) Joel 2:25 and a power to destruction, (for, fear Him, He says, that is able to destroy both body and soul in hell), Matthew 10:28 for this cause he says, it is not these that I come to bring, the powers of chastisement and punishment, but those of salvation. What then? Did not the Gospel tell of these things also, namely, the account of hell, and that of the outer darkness, and of the venomous worm? And yet we know of these from no other source than the Gospel. In what sense then does he say, the power of God unto salvation? Attend only to what follows. To every one that believes; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.
    For it is not to all absolutely, but to them that receive it. For though thou be a Grecian (i.e. Heathen), and even one that has run into every kind of vice, though a Scythian, though a barbarian, though a very brute, and full of all irrationality, and burdened with the weights of endless sins, no sooner have you received the word concerning the Cross, and been baptized, than you have blotted out all these; and why says he here, to the Jew first, and also to the Greek? What means this difference? And yet he has often said, Neither circumcision is anything, nor uncircumcision Galatians 5:6 and 6:15; how then does he here discriminate, setting the Jew before the Greek? Now why is this? Seeing that by being first he does not therefore receive any more of the grace (for the same gift is bestowed both on this person and that,) but the first is an honor in order of time only. For he has no such advantage as that of receiving greater righteousness, but is only honored in respect of his receiving it first. Since in the case of those that are enlightened (you that are initiated know what is meant,) all run to the baptism, yet not all at the same hour, but one first and another second. Yet the first does not receive more than the second, nor he than the person after him, but all enjoy the same gifts. The first then here is an honor in word, not a superiority in grace. Then after saying, unto salvation, he enhances the gift further, by showing that it stays not at the present point, but proceeds farther. For this is what he sets forth, when he says,

    -St John Chrysostom
     
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