Infact.... Lets Apply Covenant Logic.
We know God and Israel were Married.
We know Jesus said this:
Matthew 19:3
Some Pharisees approached Him to test Him. They asked, “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife on any grounds?” 4 “Haven’t you read,” He replied, “that He who created them in the beginning made them male and female,” and He also said: “For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two will become one flesh? 6 So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore, what God has joined together, man must not separate.” “Why then,” they asked Him, “did Moses command us to give divorce papers and to send her away?”
He told them, “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because of the hardness of your hearts. But it was not like that from the beginning. 9
And I tell you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.”
Matthew 19:3-9 -
Bible Gateway passage: Matthew 19:3-9 - Holman Christian Standard Bible
So... by Jesus’ own standards... Marrying the Gentiles would be Adultery.
When Jesus died... Israel was widowed. This is also how the Old Covenant is not imputes Against New Covenant Believers.
Israel Divorced Jesus when... When it’s leadership said they had no King but Caesar.
Jesus was Righteous in the Divorce, because He didn’t initiate it and Israel was Unfaithful... and twice over righteous, because Death did them Part.
Divorce... Cut Off... Death did them Part...
This is exactly what Paul says in Romans 11.
Now, to say Israel is the BOC is to accuse God of Adultery... and to say the BOC is widowed, and Divorced from God.
How do I know Jesus was prophetically responding to the Pharisees?
Note that Jesus was being tested by the Pharisees?
Matthew 4:7