Not really. Where they appear to agree in the definition of "murder" and "theft," they will differ in their definition of "person."
And be sure you're talking about truly different cultures. Western European nations, for instance, are not truly different from one another in culture.
A culture's definition of "person" might be the first criterion in identifying that one culture is truly different from another. Another central criterion would how that culture understands the function of time. The third criterion (I'm working on a triad here) would be how a culture determines what a "fact" is (its epistemology). I suspect if we did a study, we'd discover that when those three points differ between cultures, their understanding of "person," "murder," and "theft" also differ.
I see it has already happened...