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Since it is not plainly and explicitly written in the Bible, it therefore does not exist.I reject Mary as my mediator, but gladly and enthusiastically accept her as intercessor.
And Job, and James, and Nectarios.
Tradition holds that Mary did not sin intentionally- much like Job, who is described as "blameless" and "righteous."
If those traits are attributed to Job, how hard is it to attribute them to Mary?
No Orthodox would say you should. Sin in Greek is hamartia, which means to miss the mark. We all miss the mark, even Mary and Job.It's not that it's not plainly written in the Bible.
It's that it's plainly written, "All have sinned".
How am I spose to ignore it?
sunlover
no, I suppose not.No Orthodox would say you should. Sin in Greek is hamartia, which means to miss the mark. We all miss the mark, even Mary and Job.
There is a difference between intentional and unintentional sin, even the OT makes different provisions for sins of intention or accident.
Tradition holds that Mary did not sin intentionally. The part where it says all have sinned does not contradict this.
is it? hmmm.....nope, don't think so.Christianity is impossible.
true. All things possible.Yes, with God all things are possible. Mary and Job are no exceptions.
Love,
Christina
The example of Mary never willfully sinning, is based on a traditional understanding. It is not scripturally supported.
It is expecting to agree with a premise that is not revealed in scripture. It isn't the same as arguing Christianity with an unbeliever.
non of which states didn't sin.full of grace
the Lord is with thee
blessed art thou among women
Again . . . Job being blameless.
willful sin. as in "like the rest of us."Never said she didn't.
so, what does it mean : the parents of John the Baptist were "blameless/righteous" ? (can't remember which one)willful sin. as in "like the rest of us."
you're right.Yet, "the rest of us" were not chosen to bear the Christ-Child. Nor have we been deemed "full of Grace".
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