Quoting Deuteronomy

[Soyeong]

Christ quoted from Deuteronomy three times in order to defeat the temptations from Satan, which included saying that man shall not live by bread alone but by every word that comes from the mouth of God, so he affirmed Deuteronomy and every word that has come from the mouth of God as being authoritative, which included what God spoke in Deuteronomy 5:31-33 in regard to the laws of the Torah. In Deuteronomy 12:32, it prohibits adding to or subtracting from the Torah. In Deuteronomy 13, the way that God instructed His people to determine that someone is a false prophet who is not speaking for Him is if they teach against obeying the Torah.

So how does it make sense for someone to interpret Jesus as being against following anything in Deuteronomy or that has come from the mouth of God? About 1/3 of the verses in the NT contain quotes or allusions to the OT, which its authors did thousands of times in order to support what they were saying, so how does it make sense for someone to consider those quotes to be authoritative while rejecting the Torah that the authors of those quotes considered to be authoritative? If someone thinks the authors of the NT did spoke against obeying the Torah, then they should either conclude that they were false prophets or conclude that they must have misinterpreted them.

 

[HTacianas]

Christ quoted from Deuteronomy three times in order to defeat the temptations from Satan, which included saying that man shall not live by bread alone but by every word that comes from the mouth of God, so he affirmed Deuteronomy and every word that has come from the mouth of God as being authoritative, which included what God spoke in Deuteronomy 5:31-33 in regard to the laws of the Torah. In Deuteronomy 12:32, it prohibits adding to or subtracting from the Torah. In Deuteronomy 13, the way that God instructed His people to determine that someone is a false prophet who is not speaking for Him is if they teach against obeying the Torah.

So how does it make sense for someone to interpret Jesus as being against following anything in Deuteronomy or that has come from the mouth of God? About 1/3 of the verses in the NT contain quotes or allusions to the OT, which its authors did thousands of times in order to support what they were saying, so how does it make sense for someone to consider those quotes to be authoritative while rejecting the Torah that the authors of those quotes considered to be authoritative? If someone thinks the authors of the NT did spoke against obeying the Torah, then they should either conclude that they were false prophets or conclude that they must have misinterpreted them.

Jesus wasn't against following anything in Deuteronomy. In fact he at first preached adherence to the law to the Jews. But after the had been rejected by the Jews and was about to be crucified he instituted the new covenant that had been prophesied by Jeremiah:

Jer 31:31 “Behold, the days are coming, says the LORD, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah—

In reading further in Jeremiah the new covenant would not be like the covenant God made with the Jews at Sinai. The new one was instituted at the last supper:

Mat 26:28 “For this is My blood of the new covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.

And Jesus became "a priest forever in the order of Melchizedek". As the writer to the Hebrews explains it:

Heb 7:11 Therefore, if perfection were through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need was there that another priest should rise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be called according to the order of Aaron?
Heb 7:12 For the priesthood being changed, of necessity there is also a change of the law.

With the change of the priesthood there is a change of the law. It was no longer according to the Levites, but neither was it according to Aaron. It was under the Levites that the Jews received the Levitical law, and it was under Aaron that the Jews received the ten commandments, including the sabbath. But the law under Melchizedek did not include the sabbath. The sabbath was given to the Jews much later than Melchizedek. So the law has been rolled back, past the Levites, and past Aaron, to Melchizedek. So as the writer to the Colossians says:

Col 2:16 So let no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths,

As both Micah and Isaiah foretold, "For out of Zion the law shall go forth". And the law did go forth from Zion with the Apostles. But it was the law of Melchizedek.

 

[Soyeong]

Jesus wasn't against following anything in Deuteronomy. In fact he at first preached adherence to the law to the Jews. But after the had been rejected by the Jews and was about to be crucified he instituted the new covenant that had been prophesied by Jeremiah:

Jer 31:31 “Behold, the days are coming, says the LORD, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah—

In reading further in Jeremiah the new covenant would not be like the covenant God made with the Jews at Sinai. The new one was instituted at the last supper:

Mat 26:28 “For this is My blood of the new covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.

And Jesus became "a priest forever in the order of Melchizedek". As the writer to the Hebrews explains it:

Heb 7:11 Therefore, if perfection were through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need was there that another priest should rise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be called according to the order of Aaron?
Heb 7:12 For the priesthood being changed, of necessity there is also a change of the law.

With the change of the priesthood there is a change of the law. It was no longer according to the Levites, but neither was it according to Aaron. It was under the Levites that the Jews received the Levitical law, and it was under Aaron that the Jews received the ten commandments, including the sabbath. But the law under Melchizedek did not include the sabbath. The sabbath was given to the Jews much later than Melchizedek. So the law has been rolled back, past the Levites, and past Aaron, to Melchizedek. So as the writer to the Colossians says:

Col 2:16 So let no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths,

As both Micah and Isaiah foretold, "For out of Zion the law shall go forth". And the law did go forth from Zion with the Apostles. But it was the law of Melchizedek.

The reason that Jesus established the New Covenant was not in order to nullify anything that he spent his ministry teaching, to go against anything that has come from the mouth of God, or to cause us to be free to have the same lawlessness that made the New Covenant needed to the first place, but rather the New Covenant still involves following the Torah (Jeremiah 31:33). A priesthood that is headed by God's word made flesh should be considered to be in accordance with God's word.

In Colossians 2:16-23, Paul described the people who were judging the Colossians as promoting human precepts and traditions, self-made religion, asceticism, and severity to the body, which means that they were being judged by pagans because they were keeping God's feast that that Paul was encouraging them not to let anyone judge them for obeying God. Those promoting asceticism and serenity to the body would be judging people for celebrating feasts, not for refraining from doing that.

In Isaiah 2:2-3, it equates the Torah with God's way, and there are many other verses that connect the two, such as Psalms 103:7 saying that God made His way known to Moses. In Genesis 18:19, God knew Abraham that he would teach his children and those of His household to walk in His way by being a doer of righteousness and justice that the Lord might bring to him all that He has promised. In Genesis 26:4-5, God will multiply Abraham's children as the star in the heaven, to his children he will give all of these lands, and trough his children all of the nations of the earth will be blessed because he heard God's voice and guarded His charge, commandments, statutes, and laws. In Deuteronomy 30:16, if the children of Abraham will love God with all of their heart and soul by walking in His way in obedience to His commandments, statutes, and laws, then they will live and multiply and God will bless them in the land that they go to posses. So the promise was made to Abraham and brought about because he walked in His way in obedience to His law, he taught his children and those of his household to do that, and because they did that. In Exodus 33:13, Moses wanted God to be gracious to him by teaching him to walk in His way that he and Israel might know Him, and John 8:39, Jesus said that if they were children of Abraham, then they would be doing the same works as him, so both Abraham and Moses taught how to walk in God's way in obedience to His law and there isn't a disconnect between the works that Abraham did and what the Israelites should be doing.

 

[Clare73]

Christ quoted from Deuteronomy three times in order to defeat the temptations from Satan, which included saying that man shall not live by bread alone but by every word that comes from the mouth of God, so he affirmed Deuteronomy and every word that has come from the mouth of God as being authoritative, which included what God spoke in Deuteronomy 5:31-33 in regard to the laws of the Torah. In Deuteronomy 12:32, it prohibits adding to or subtracting from the Torah. In Deuteronomy 13, the way that God instructed His people to determine that someone is a false prophet who is not speaking for Him is if they teach against obeying the Torah.

So how does it make sense for someone to interpret Jesus as being against following anything in Deuteronomy or that has come from the mouth of God?

Jesus lived in the OT.

We live in the gospel NT beginning after the cross.

About 1/3 of the verses in the NT contain quotes or allusions to the OT, which its authors did thousands of times in order to support what they were saying, so how does it make sense for someone to consider those quotes to be authoritative while rejecting the Torah that the authors of those quotes considered to be authoritative? If someone thinks the authors of the NT did spoke against obeying the Torah, then they should either conclude that they were false prophets or conclude that they must have misinterpreted them.

 

[HTacianas]

The reason that Jesus established the New Covenant was not in order to nullify anything that he spent his ministry teaching, to go against anything that has come from the mouth of God, or to cause us to be free to have the same lawlessness that made the New Covenant needed to the first place, but rather the New Covenant still involves following the Torah (Jeremiah 31:33). A priesthood that is headed by God's word made flesh should be considered to be in accordance with God's word.

In Colossians 2:16-23, Paul described the people who were judging the Colossians as promoting human precepts and traditions, self-made religion, asceticism, and severity to the body, which means that they were being judged by pagans because they were keeping God's feast that that Paul was encouraging them not to let anyone judge them for obeying God. Those promoting asceticism and serenity to the body would be judging people for celebrating feasts, not for refraining from doing that.

In Isaiah 2:2-3, it equates the Torah with God's way, and there are many other verses that connect the two, such as Psalms 103:7 saying that God made His way known to Moses. In Genesis 18:19, God knew Abraham that he would teach his children and those of His household to walk in His way by being a doer of righteousness and justice that the Lord might bring to him all that He has promised. In Genesis 26:4-5, God will multiply Abraham's children as the star in the heaven, to his children he will give all of these lands, and trough his children all of the nations of the earth will be blessed because he heard God's voice and guarded His charge, commandments, statutes, and laws. In Deuteronomy 30:16, if the children of Abraham will love God with all of their heart and soul by walking in His way in obedience to His commandments, statutes, and laws, then they will live and multiply and God will bless them in the land that they go to posses. So the promise was made to Abraham and brought about because he walked in His way in obedience to His law, he taught his children and those of his household to do that, and because they did that. In Exodus 33:13, Moses wanted God to be gracious to him by teaching him to walk in His way that he and Israel might know Him, and John 8:39, Jesus said that if they were children of Abraham, then they would be doing the same works as him, so both Abraham and Moses taught how to walk in God's way in obedience to His law and there isn't a disconnect between the works that Abraham did and what the Israelites should be doing.

Well you mention Abraham. No sabbath was given to Abraham. He lived in the time of Melchizedek. And I don't know how you equate asceticism with the Colossians but you are way off on that. Asceticism has always been a part of Christianity.

 

[BobRyan]

Jesus wasn't against following anything in Deuteronomy. In fact he at first preached adherence to the law to the Jews. But after the had been rejected by the Jews and was about to be crucified he instituted the new covenant that had been prophesied by Jeremiah:

Jer 31:31 “Behold, the days are coming, says the LORD, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah—

The New Covenant is OLD Testament.

The OLD Testament is the pure Gospel about Jesus Christ being the savior of the world

Acts 10 - teaches gentiles the following:
42 And He ordered us to preach to the people, and solemnly to testify that this is the One who has been appointed by God as Judge of the living and the dead. 43 Of Him all the prophets bear witness that through His name everyone who believes in Him receives forgiveness of sins.”

Gal 3:8 - "The Gospel was preached to Abraham"
1 Peter 1:10 As to this salvation, the prophets who prophesied of the grace that would come to you made careful searches and inquiries, 11 seeking to know what person or time the Spirit of Christ within them was indicating as He predicted the sufferings of Christ and the glories to follow.

In reading further in Jeremiah the new covenant would not be like the covenant God made with the Jews at Sinai. The new one was instituted at the last supper:

Ratified - not instituted.
It is the Gospel covenant. The one and only Gospel covenant instituted at the fall of man, ratified at the cross.

Moses and Elijah stand with Christ in Matt 17 - in glory, not by works, but via the one and only gospel covenant.

Heb 7:12 For the priesthood being changed, of necessity there is also a change of the law.

With the change of the priesthood there is a change of the law.

IT was a change to the law regarding the priesthood - since as Heb 7 points out -- there is nothing at all about a priest coming from the line of Judah or David. Christ then is a priest not after the order of Levi - but after the order of Melchizedek --

This is not about "deleting the Law that says do not take God's name in vain".

Heb 7 is specifically talking about the Law regarding priests - and who is or is not a priest.

. So as the writer to the Colossians says:

Col 2:16 So let no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths,

Col 2 is condemning "traditions of men" not the Law of God.

. 4 I say this so that no one will delude you with persuasive argument. 5 For even though I am absent in body, nevertheless I am with you in spirit, rejoicing to see your good discipline and the stability of your faith in Christ.

8 See to it that no one takes you captive through philosophy and empty deception, according to the tradition of men, according to the elementary principles of the world, rather than according to Christ. 9

13 When you were dead in your transgressions and the uncircumcision of your flesh, He made you alive together with Him, having forgiven us all our transgressions, 14 having canceled out the certificate of debt consisting of decrees against us, which was hostile to us; and He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross.

<< It is our "certificate of debt" - as Rom 6 reminds us "the wages of sin is death". The punishment due to us - paid by Christ


16 Therefore no one is to act as your judge in regard to food or drink or in respect to a festival or a new moon or a sabbath day— 17 things which are a mere shadow of what is to come; but the substance belongs to Christ.

(Judge not that you be not judged - is a pre-cross teaching of Christ in Matt 7 and also applies even after the cross as we see in Col 2)

18 Let no one keep defrauding you of your prize by delighting in self-abasement and the worship of the angels, taking his stand on visions he has seen, inflated without cause by his fleshly mind, 19 and not holding fast to the head, from whom the entire body, being supplied and held together by the joints and ligaments, grows with a growth which is from God.

20 If you have died with Christ to the elementary principles of the world, why, as if you were living in the world, do you submit yourself to decrees, such as, 21 “Do not handle, do not taste, do not touch!” 22 (which all refer to things destined to perish with use)—in accordance with the commandments and teachings of men? 23 These are matters which have, to be sure, the appearance of wisdom in self-made religion and self-abasement and severe treatment of the body, but are of no value against fleshly indulgence.

As both Micah and Isaiah foretold, "For out of Zion the law shall go forth". And the law did go forth from Zion with the Apostles. But it was the law of Melchizedek.

 

[BobRyan]

Well you mention Abraham. No sabbath was given to Abraham.

Abraham kept My Laws, My Statutes, My Commandments.
Gen 26:5 5 because Abraham obeyed Me and kept My charge, My commandments, My statutes and My laws.”

Ex 20:11 says the Sabbath was given to mankind at Creation - Gen 2:2-3
Mark 2:27 Jesus says the Sabbath was "MADE for mankind" and not "Mankind MADE for the Sabbath" -- which speaks to the "making" of Both. And only Gen 1-2 shows the "making of both".

 

[BobRyan]

Jesus lived din the OT.

We live in the gospel NT beginning after the cross.

Jesus lived both before and after the cross AND told His followers in Matt 28 - after the cross -- to teach mankind all that He taught them.
The disciples then do that very thing - and this is how we have the four Gospels, and also the entire NT.

There is no "ignore scripture " doctrine in either OT or NT.

 

[HTacianas]

Abraham kept My Laws, My Statutes, My Commandments.
Gen 26:5 5 because Abraham obeyed Me and kept My charge, My commandments, My statutes and My laws.”

Ex 20:11 says the Sabbath was given to mankind at Creation - Gen 2:2-3
Mark 2:27 Jesus says the Sabbath was "MADE for mankind" and not "Mankind MADE for the Sabbath" -- which speaks to the "making" of Both. And only Gen 1-2 shows the "making of both".

Abraham did in fact keep the statutes and commandants of God. But the sabbath was not one of them. No one was given the sabbath until Exodus. And even today Jews will tell you that the sabbath does not apply to gentiles as it did not apply to Noah.

 

[BobRyan]

Abraham did in fact keep the statutes and commandants of God. But the sabbath was not one of them.

And yet...
Ex 20:11 says the Sabbath was given to mankind at Creation - Gen 2:2-3
Mark 2:27 Jesus says the Sabbath was "MADE for mankind" and not "Mankind MADE for the Sabbath" -- which speaks to the "making" of Both. And only Gen 1-2 shows the "making of both".

Are you simply taking a by-faith-alone nine-commandments-not-ten position no matter what the text has to the contrary?

No one was given the sabbath until Exodus

By your logic "no one was told not to take God's name in vain until the Exodus".

Are you comfortable with that sort of thing?

Because by comparison to "do not take God's name in vain" we actually have "Made it Holy" , "Sanctified it" in Gen 2:2-3 just as we see in Ex 20:11 for that 7th day Sabbath.

. And even today Jews will tell you that the sabbath does not apply to gentiles

Jews today might be surprised to meet a Jew from Christ's day where "gentiles were in the synagogues" -- "every Sabbath" Acts 18:4,

Acts 13 Gentiles in the synagogue on Sabbath wait for the jews to leave and then ask Paul for MORE gospel preaching to be given to them "the NEXT Sabbath"

Where "The sabbath was made for mankind" Mark 2:27 not "The Sabbath was made just for Jews"

Even Jews today still know that in Deut 5 God said he spoke the TEN -- "and added no more" -- so that in the Jer 31 New Covenant when it says it "Writes God's LAW on heart and mind" that Law most certainly includes the TEN - no matter what else one might wish to cut out of it.

 

[Aaron112]

Jews today might be surprised to meet a Jew from Christ's day where "gentiles were in the synagogues" -- "every Sabbath" Acts 18:4,

Pretty much only gentiles living rightly with Yahweh.

Ungodly, unrighteous , sinful, wicked, gentiles were not usually in the synagogue nor honored Shabbat.

 

[BobRyan]

Pretty much only gentiles living rightly with Yahweh.

Ungodly, unrighteous , sinful, wicked, gentiles were not usually in the synagogue nor honored Shabbat.

Those sorts are also not in church . But that does not mean that Christianity and Christian morals do not apply to all mankind.

1 John 3:4 "sin is transgression of the law"
1 John 2:1 "I write that you sin not"
1 Cor 7:19 "what matters is keeping the commandments of God"
Where "The first commandment with a promise is - honor your father and mother" Eph 6:1-2
1 John 5:2-3 "this IS the Love of God that we KEEP His Commandments"

True for both Jews and gentiles.

 

[HTacianas]

And yet...
Ex 20:11 says the Sabbath was given to mankind at Creation - Gen 2:2-3
Mark 2:27 Jesus says the Sabbath was "MADE for mankind" and not "Mankind MADE for the Sabbath" -- which speaks to the "making" of Both. And only Gen 1-2 shows the "making of both".

Are you simply taking a by-faith-alone nine-commandments-not-ten position no matter what the text has to the contrary?


By your logic "no one was told not to take God's name in vain until the Exodus".

Are you comfortable with that sort of thing?

Because by comparison to "do not take God's name in vain" we actually have "Made it Holy" , "Sanctified it" in Gen 2:2-3 just as we see in Ex 20:11 for that 7th day Sabbath.

Jews today might be surprised to meet a Jew from Christ's day where "gentiles were in the synagogues" -- "every Sabbath" Acts 18:4,

Acts 13 Gentiles in the synagogue on Sabbath wait for the jews to leave and then ask Paul for MORE gospel preaching to be given to them "the NEXT Sabbath"

Where "The sabbath was made for mankind" Mark 2:27 not "The Sabbath was made just for Jews"

Even Jews today still know that in Deut 5 God said he spoke the TEN -- "and added no more" -- so that in the Jer 31 New Covenant when it says it "Writes God's LAW on heart and mind" that Law most certainly includes the TEN - no matter what else one might wish to cut out of it.

You're a bit weak on Judaism. Of course my go-to authority on Judaism is Chabad Lubavitch. Maybe you have some other authority. As to gentiles in the synagogue on the sabbath, it makes sense that they would be there on that day because that's the day everyone else would have been there. It would o little good to go there on Tuesday. Now, as to this other stuff, what did Jesus teach was the first great commandment? "Love the Lord your God with all your heart and all your soul and all your mind". Anyone who obeys that commandment is surely not going to take the Lord's name in vain. And note that the first and greatest commandment is not even part of the ten.

 

[Studyman]

Well you mention Abraham. No sabbath was given to Abraham. He lived in the time of Melchizedek. And I don't know how you equate asceticism with the Colossians but you are way off on that. Asceticism has always been a part of Christianity.

You have no evidence that God didn't share HIS Creation with Abram, including His Sanctification of God's Holy Sabbath. Just as you do not know where Amalek learned about the wickedness of Adultery. Just as you have no evidence regarding where and when God shared with Noah the differences between " the beast that may be eaten and the beast that may not be eaten" that he was commanded to bring into the Ark. Nevertheless, these men knew about God's Laws even though they were not enumerated by God to us through Moses until After Abraham died.

It is absurd really, to believe or suggest that the only Words God spoke to Noah or Abraham or Sodom, etc., are the Words recorded in Scriptures.

Consider God's Words concerning Abraham.

Gen. 18: 19 For I know him, that he will command his children and his household after him, and they shall keep the way of the LORD, to do justice and judgment; that the LORD may bring upon Abraham that which he hath spoken of him.

Clearly God had shared with Abraham the "Way of the Lord", HIS definition of Justice, and HIS Judgments. Even though the "Way of the Lord" was not enumerated until the Exodus.

Gen. 26: 4 And I will make thy (Isaac's) seed to multiply as the stars of heaven, and will give unto thy seed all these countries; and in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; 5 Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.

So we know that God had given Abraham His Laws, Commandments and statutes, even though they were not specifically enumerated until later in the Holy Scriptures. There is no evidence that God's commandments, statues and Laws that made up the "Way of the Lord" changed between Abraham's Children and Abraham's great, great grandchildren.

The only thing that was Prophesied to change, was the manner in which God's Laws are administered, and the manner in which transgression of God's Laws were provided for. Both were duties of the Priesthood. It was the Priesthood that changed, according to Scriptures.

 

[BobRyan]

You're a bit weak on Judaism. Of course my go-to authority on Judaism is Chabad Lubavitch. Maybe you have some other authority. As to gentiles in the synagogue on the sabbath, it makes sense that they would be there on that day because that's the day everyone else would have been there.

gentiles wait for the Jews to leave the synagogue in Acts 13 - THEN they ask for MORE Gospel preaching to be given to them THE NEXT SABBATH.

At which point almost the ENTIRE TOWN shows up
And the JEWS complain.

No wonder the Messianic Jews to this very day -affirm this bible detail

It would o little good to go there on Tuesday. Now, as to this other stuff, what did Jesus teach was the first great commandment? "Love the Lord your God with all your heart and all your soul and all your mind".

Indeed - he cites Deut 6:5 when tested by the Jews about which is the greatest commandment. see Matt 22.
His answer "silenced the Sadducees" as Matt 22:34 points out.
Deut 6:5 "Love God with all your heart"
Lev 19:18 "Love your neighbor as yourself"

There was no way to object. It is pure OT doctrine on the Law of God.

In fact Luke 10:25-28 shows that the Jews agreed with Christ about these two Commandments in the Law of Moses.

Anyone who obeys that commandment is surely not going to take the Lord's name in vain.

No doubt - obeying the Commandments is better than rebellion.
This is also true in the case of Gen 2:1-3 the Sabbath commanded as a "holy day" sanctified and made Holy - Ex 20:11 at Creation Week.
"made for mankind" Mark 2:27 as a blessing to mankind.

And note that the first and greatest commandment is not even part of the ten.

Indeed neither the first or the second are listed in the TEN.

Yet Paul is clear "Honor your father and mother is the FIRST commandment with a promise" then that unit of TEN still valid in the NT Eph 6:1-2

Here is something that all denomination accept TEN Commandment not simply down-sized-to-just-nine.

Baptist Confession of Faith - section 19
Westminster Confession of Faith - section 19
Catholic Catechism on TEN Commandments
D.L. Moody sermon on TEN Commandments
R.C. Sproul on the TEN Commandments
etc.

 

[BobRyan]

You're a bit weak on Judaism. Of course my go-to authority on Judaism is Chabad Lubavitch. Maybe you have some other authority. As to gentiles in the synagogue on the sabbath, it makes sense that they would be there on that day because that's the day everyone else would have been there. It would o little good to go there on Tuesday.

It is gentiles not Jews - asking for MORE Gospel preaching on "THE NEXT" Sabbath in Acts 13.
It is an entire city of gentiles that shows up - that "Next Sabbath" instead of "tomorrow on week-day-1"
It is the Jews that then complain about the teaching of Paul and the gentiles who accept it.
Acts 13 tells us in detail - exactly what Paul was teaching on those Sabbaths. Fully OT text.

Now, as to this other stuff, what did Jesus teach was the first great commandment? "Love the Lord your God with all your heart and all your soul and all your mind". Anyone who obeys that commandment is surely not going to take the Lord's name in vain. And note that the first and greatest commandment is not even part of the ten.

True.
In fact
"What matters is KEEPING the Commandments of God" 1 Cor 7:19
"the saints KEEP the Commandments of God AND their faith in Jesus " Rev 14:12
"this IS the Love of God that we KEEP His Commandment" 1 John 5:2-3

Where "The first commandment WITH a promise - is Honor your father and mother" Eph 6:1-2 in that still valid unit of TEN

No matter all these Christian sources AFFIRM the TEN.

[*]The Baptist Confession of Faith section 19
[*]The Westminster Confession of Faith section 19
[*]Voddie Baucham
[*]C.H. Spurgeon
[*]D.L. Moody
[*]Dies Domini by Pope John Paul II
[*]D. James Kennedy
[*]R.C. Sproul

 

[HTacianas]

You have no evidence that God didn't share HIS Creation with Abram, including His Sanctification of God's Holy Sabbath. Just as you do not know where Amalek learned about the wickedness of Adultery. Just as you have no evidence regarding where and when God shared with Noah the differences between " the beast that may be eaten and the beast that may not be eaten" that he was commanded to bring into the Ark. Nevertheless, these men knew about God's Laws even though they were not enumerated by God to us through Moses until After Abraham died.

It is absurd really, to believe or suggest that the only Words God spoke to Noah or Abraham or Sodom, etc., are the Words recorded in Scriptures.

Consider God's Words concerning Abraham.

Gen. 18: 19 For I know him, that he will command his children and his household after him, and they shall keep the way of the LORD, to do justice and judgment; that the LORD may bring upon Abraham that which he hath spoken of him.

Clearly God had shared with Abraham the "Way of the Lord", HIS definition of Justice, and HIS Judgments. Even though the "Way of the Lord" was not enumerated until the Exodus.

Gen. 26: 4 And I will make thy (Isaac's) seed to multiply as the stars of heaven, and will give unto thy seed all these countries; and in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; 5 Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.

So we know that God had given Abraham His Laws, Commandments and statutes, even though they were not specifically enumerated until later in the Holy Scriptures. There is no evidence that God's commandments, statues and Laws that made up the "Way of the Lord" changed between Abraham's Children and Abraham's great, great grandchildren.

The only thing that was Prophesied to change, was the manner in which God's Laws are administered, and the manner in which transgression of God's Laws were provided for. Both were duties of the Priesthood. It was the Priesthood that changed, according to Scriptures.

Abraham's dietary laws:

Gen 9:3 “Every moving thing that lives shall be food for you. I have given you all things, even as the green herbs.

 

[Studyman]

Abraham's dietary laws:

Gen 9:3 “Every moving thing that lives shall be food "meat" for you. I have given you all things, even as the green herbs.

Gen. 6: 21 And take thou unto thee of all "food" that is eaten, and thou shalt gather it to thee; and it shall be for "food" for thee, and for them. 22 Thus did Noah; according to all that God commanded him, so did he.

Gen. 7: 1 And the LORD said unto Noah, Come thou and all thy house into the ark; for thee have I seen righteous before me in this generation. 2 Of every clean beast thou shalt take to thee by sevens, the male and his female: and of beasts that are not clean by two, the male and his female. 3 Of fowls also of the air by sevens, the male and the female; to keep seed alive upon the face of all the earth.

Gen. 8: 19 Every beast, every creeping thing, and every fowl, and whatsoever creepeth upon the earth, after their kinds, went forth out of the ark. 20 And Noah builded an altar unto the LORD; and took of every "clean beast", and of every "clean fowl", and offered burnt offerings on the altar.

So clearly God has shown Noah the difference between a clean beast, and an unclean beast and Noah sacrificed only those beasts which God deemed as "clean beasts".

Gen. 9: 3 Every moving thing that liveth shall be "meat" for you; even as the green herb have I given you all things.

And truly, if this verse were separated from the rest of the Bible, it could be used or promoted to nullify God's definition of clean and unclean animals. And to promote that God doesn't define for His Children what is Food and what is not, even though they demand the same right for their own children. And this is a Scripture they can separate and justify such a philosophy, if it is excluded from the rest of the Bible.

But the kicker for me, is the instruction later on, to Abraham's Children, concerning what is Holy and what is not, what is Clean and what is not.

Lev. 11: 44 For I am the LORD your God: ye shall therefore sanctify yourselves, and ye shall be holy; for I am holy: neither shall ye defile yourselves with any manner of creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth. 45 For I am the LORD that bringeth you up out of the land of Egypt, to be your God: ye shall therefore be holy, for I am holy. 46 This is the law of the beasts, and of the fowl, and of every living creature that moveth in the waters, and of every creature that creepeth upon the earth: 47 To make a difference between the unclean and the clean, and between the beast that may be eaten and the beast that may not be eaten.

So you are free to separate Gen. 9:3 and use it to promote the philosophy that the God's definition of unclean and clean animals for Noah, and for Abraham's Children, including Jesus, are different than God's instruction for Abraham if you like.

But the Jesus "of the Bible" did say to "Live by" Every Word of God. And clearly Jesus Himself, understood the difference between pigs and dogs, and sheep.

And we are reading translations. So for me, I'm not going to throw out so many Scriptures, just so I can eat what God forbids His Children to eat.

It's not that big a deal for me. I have plenty to eat in this world without lusting after what God Deeds is not food.

 

[Soyeong]

Abraham did in fact keep the statutes and commandants of God. But the sabbath was not one of them. No one was given the sabbath until Exodus. And even today Jews will tell you that the sabbath does not apply to gentiles as it did not apply to Noah.

I established that both Abraham and Moses taught how to walk in His way in obedience to His law, so I see no basis for claiming that the Sabbath was not one of them or that it was not given until Exodus. In Isaiah 56, the Sabbath was also for Gentiles.

 

[HTacianas]

I established that both Abraham and Moses taught how to walk in His way in obedience to His law, so I see no basis for claiming that the Sabbath was not one of them or that it was not given until Exodus. In Isaiah 56, the Sabbath was also for Gentiles.

Isaiah 56 refers to a gentile proselyte to Judaism or at least a gentile who has chosen to live among the Jews. Now, if you look to Hebrews:

Heb 7:11 Therefore, if perfection were through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law)...

The parenthetical statement for under it the people received the law, meaning that under the Levitical priesthood the people received the law -the "law for righteousness", Romans 9:31, 10:4. It was under the Levitical priesthood that the trappings of the Levitical were given. It is more or less a myth that Moses gave the entirety of the law at Sinai.

And again, the basis for saying that the sabbath was given to the Jews at Sinai is Judaism itself. If you can find a reputable source saying that the sabbath was given to gentiles I'll gladly listen but a simple assertion on your part isn't quite good enough.