K
Kai
Guest
Sure we can.
Some here just change definitions of words to suit their needs.
1 corinthians 7:1-2 says quite plainly that it is good for a man NOT to touch a woman, ie not have sex,
Some here just change the context of words to suit their needs. First Corinthians 7 1-2 has Paul quoting an extreme Corinthian ascetic sect, not giving a command that men should never have sex.
The only one distorting facts here is you because you're adding a meaning to the words that was never expressed in the passages themselves:but in order to AVOID sexual SIN, let him have his own wife....he needs to marry...Some can make any claims they wish to make, but the FACT is that the word HAS a meaning and it isnt restricted to 'temple prostitutions' not even in the letters to the Corinthians.....and without that distortion of the facts, that verse shows quite conclusively that UNmarried sex IS 'whoredom/harlotry/illicit sex".
Here is the passage that defines porneia right before 1 Cor 7 and it mentions specifically that temple prostitution is what Paul had in mind. No one has said porneia is restricted to temple prostitutions--it is NOT--but in this particular part of the Corinthians, the part of porneia Paul has in mind he clearly shows to be temple prostitution. Therefore, a truly justified way to interpret the opening lines of chapter 7's porneia reference is in the context of temple prostitution: One reason Paul advises people to marry is so that they can have sex in marriage instead of obtaining it through temple prostitutes. Of course, all other forms of porneia apply here (NRSV's "cases of sexual immorality, v.2), but noncultic, heterosexual premarital sex cannot, because in no passage--whether 6, 7, or anywhere else--is premarital sex either classified as sin or condemned as porneia like temple prostitution and adultery are.15 Do you not know that your bodies are members of Christ? Should I therefore take the members of Christ and make them members of a prostitute? Never! 16 Do you not know that whoever is united to a prostitute becomes one body with her? For it is said, ‘The two shall be one flesh.’ 17 But anyone united to the Lord becomes one spirit with him. 18 Shun fornication! Every sin that a person commits is outside the body; but the fornicator sins against the body itself. 19 Or do you not know that your body is a temple of the Holy Spirit within you, which you have from God, and that you are not your own? 20 1 Cor 6 (NRSV)
Yeah, because unmarried couples and widows can seek temple prostitutes for sex. Better that they marry. Hey, Paul did good here!The passage above applies to the UNmarried virgin or widow(er) whether the few can accept it or not.
Exactly.
Wow, you like fighting against arguments that no one's even offered yet too?The argument that a couple needs to have sex to give the relationship a test drive is just bogus nonsense to excuse having UNmarried sex , ie 'sin'.
Nice cop out. Now, before making yourself appear to be intellectually dishonest again, provide your statistics that unmarried people are promiscuous....If you would like to play the semantics game and say that 'commitment' can be defined as 'marriage', then you are effectively conceding every point I've made in this thread--since my argument has been (from the beginning) that unmarried (in the legal sense) sex is fine (as long as it is in a committed relationship, as I have denied the value of promiscuous sex countless times).
This is what I've been trying to point out countless times to Tipton, i.e., that boyfriend-girlfriend couples who have sex are not necessarily promiscuous or lustful, and that his falsely stating that they are destroys his own argument. Just wait and see: it'll go right over his head. He can't provide a university study or any citation showing that it is so because there isn't any.
Last edited:
Upvote
0