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Question for Amillennialists

claninja

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Hi Claninja. ALL first century literature?? ALL the Olivet discourse?? Can you answer my query here please.

I’m sure you agree that the Bible is full of hyperbole, simile, idioms, metaphors……that are often foreign to different cultures, especially ones 2,000 plus years removed, no?

As to the OD, preterism usually agrees that context of Jesus words, and apostles questions, are related to the destruction of Jerusalem and the temple, and therefore, “this generation shall not pass away until all these things occur”, refers to the contemporary generation Jesus was talking to.

With that interpretation I mind, is Jesus using literal world ending language or hyperbolic language consistent with OT prophets? I lean toward the latter, though I suppose the rising smoke from the cities destruction would black out the sky and give the moon a reddish color.

Celestial disturbances were often used on the OT in regards to the overthrow of nations and its resulting terror and distress:

Matthew Henry

Such expressions are often employed by the prophets, to describe the convulsions of governments.

Barnes
Darkness and night, in the Scriptures, are often the emblem of calamity and distress (see the note at Matthew 24:29). The revolutions and destructions of kingdoms and nations are often represented in the Scriptures under this image. So respecting the destruction of Idumea Isaiah 34:4 :
And all the hosts of heaven shall be dissolved, And the heavens shall be rolled together as a scroll; And all their host shall fall down, As the leaf falleth from off the vine, And as a falling fig from the fig-tree. So in Ezekiel 32:7-8, in a prophecy respecting the destruction of Pharaoh, king of Egypt:
And when I shall put time out, I will cover the heavens, and make the stoa thereof dark, I will cover the sun with a cloud,
And the moon shall not give her light.
And the bright lights of heaven will I make dark over thee
. And set darkness upon thy land. (Compare Joel 2:10; Joel 3:15-16.) Thus in Amos 8:9 : continued...

Gill
For the stars of heaven,.... This and what follows are to be understood, not literally, but figuratively, as expressive of the dismalness and gloominess of the dispensation, of the horror and terror of it, in which there was no light, no comfort, no relief, nor any hope of any; the heavens and all the celestial bodies frowning upon them

Benson
For, as Bishop Lowth observes, the Hebrew writers, “to express happiness, prosperity, the instauration and advancement of states, kingdoms, and potentates, make use of images taken from the most striking parts of nature; from the heavenly bodies, from the sun, moon, and stars, which they describe as shining with increased splendour, and never setting; the moon becomes like the meridian sun, and the sun’s light is augmented seven-fold: see Isaiah 30:26. New heavens and a new earth are created, and a brighter age commences. On the contrary, the overthrow and destruction of kingdoms are represented by opposite images; the stars are obscured, the moon withdraws her light, and the sun shines no more; the earth quakes, and the heavens tremble; and all things seem tending to their original chaos.

I don’t think Luke’s addition of the roaring sea and waves is to be taken as a world ending event, but more so to tie into the anxiety and distress associated with the fall of a kingdom.

Ellicot:

Assuming, as has been suggested above, that St. Luke’s report is of the nature of a paraphrase, we may, perhaps, connect this feature in it with his own experience. To one who had known the perils of waters narrated in Acts 27, no picture of the more dread phenomena of nature could be complete without “the sea and the waves roaring.”

Benson
“Those dreadful calamities; which are coming on the earth — Or, on the land. For the powers of heaven shall be shaken — For this shall not be like former invasions, or captivities, which only produced some transient disorders in the state, or at most an interruption in the government for a few years; but it shall be attended with a total subversion of it; even of the whole Jewish polity, laws, and religion, which were the work of heaven, or which, containing in them the light of truth, are signified by the sun, moon, and stars in the preceding verse; and therefore might in this be called the powers of heaven.”

Barnes
The sea and the waves roaring - This is not to be understood literally, but as an image of great distress. Probably it is designed to denote that these calamities would come upon them like a deluge. As when in a storm the ocean roars, and wave rolls on wave and dashes against the shore, and each succeeding surge is more violent than the one that preceded it, so would the calamities come upon Judea. They would roll over the whole land, and each wave of trouble would be more violent than the one that preceded it, until the whole country would be desolate. The same image is also used in Isaiah 8:7-8, and Revelation 18:15.

Cambridge
signs in the sun, and in the moon, and in the stars] The articles should be omitted. These signs are mainly metaphorical—the eclipse of nations and the downfall of potentates—though there may be literal fulfilments also. The language is that of the ancient prophets, Amos 8:9; Joel 2:30-31; Ezekiel 32:7-8, as in Revelation 6:12-14.

distress of nations] Synoche, xii. 50 and 2 Corinthians 2:4.

the sea and the waves roaring] The true reading is probably ἤχους and the translation, “in perplexity at the roar of the sea and surge.” Comp. Psalm 46:4.“In that day they shall roar against them like the roaring of the sea,” Isaiah 5:30. The raging sea is the sea of nations, Jdg 1:13; Revelation 17:15.
 
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claninja

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I have repeatedly.

Of course you will, because your theology does not add up.

You completely ignored my clarifying question on your strawman argument about 40+ years = imminent….

You claimed eggizo does not mean imminent. But when I provided the helps word studies definition that states eggizo, In the perfect tense, literally means imminent, you refused to provide and scholarly work to back up your polar opposite claim…..

You refused to provide any gospel or epistolic evidence that states Satan will be released for a small time to war against the church and called it an arbitrary request, despite also claiming you use scripture to interpret scripture…..

You haven’t “repeatedly”. you keep going off into different directions, and pulling the conversation in so many different ways……your the one that initially chimed into my posts…..

So if you want to have a conversation, let’s make it simple, and stick to the OP, which is about Satan’s activities.

Revelation states the binding is about stopping Satan from warring against the church. Do the gospels and epistles mention that Satan is bound from warring against the church and then will be released to war against the church?
 
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sovereigngrace

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You completely ignored my clarifying question on your strawman argument about 40+ years = imminent….

You claimed eggizo does not mean imminent. But when I provided the helps word studies definition that states eggizo, In the perfect tense, literally means imminent, you refused to provide and scholarly work to back up your polar opposite claim…..

You refused to provide any gospel or epistolic evidence that states Satan will be released for a small time to war against the church and called it an arbitrary request, despite also claiming you use scripture to interpret scripture…..

You haven’t “repeatedly”. you keep going off into different directions, and pulling the conversation in so many different ways……your the one that initially chimed into my posts…..

So if you want to have a conversation, let’s make it simple, and stick to the OP, which is about Satan’s activities.

Revelation states the binding is about stopping Satan from warring against the church. Do the gospels and epistles mention that Satan is bound from warring against the church and then will be released to war against the church?
You cherry-pick your academic authorities, Bible-versions, original word meanings, historic detail, arguments and criterion to suit your beliefs. That is called manipulation. That is why is is hard to take your avoidance serious.

Start by proving that something literal and prophetic like a millennial period in Revelation 20 with a designed start time, finish time, and notable and repeatedly taught actual historic events, is an illusion. You have avoided this for long enough. This is only one of numerous errors involved in your theology.
 
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sovereigngrace

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You completely ignored my clarifying question on your strawman argument about 40+ years = imminent….

You claimed eggizo does not mean imminent. But when I provided the helps word studies definition that states eggizo, In the perfect tense, literally means imminent, you refused to provide and scholarly work to back up your polar opposite claim…..

You refused to provide any gospel or epistolic evidence that states Satan will be released for a small time to war against the church and called it an arbitrary request, despite also claiming you use scripture to interpret scripture…..

You haven’t “repeatedly”. you keep going off into different directions, and pulling the conversation in so many different ways……your the one that initially chimed into my posts…..

So if you want to have a conversation, let’s make it simple, and stick to the OP, which is about Satan’s activities.

Revelation states the binding is about stopping Satan from warring against the church. Do the gospels and epistles mention that Satan is bound from warring against the church and then will be released to war against the church?

Not true. I presented hard evidence and (once again) you ducked around it. You have to!

Matthew 12:22-29, Mark 3:11, 23-27, Luke 10:18-19, Luke 11:20-22, John 12:31-33 Colossians 2:13-15, Hebrews 2:14-15, I John 3:8, Revelation 9:1-11 and Revelation 20:2 prove Satan was bound, defeated, incapacitated, divested of power, disarmed, brought to naught, undone, stripped and spiritually imprisoned through Christ's sinless life, atoning death and triumphant resurrection. Colossians 2:15 tells us: “having spoiled (or divested or disarmed) principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it.” Satan has not been rendered immobile or inoperative but is limited in his power, kingship and influence by being defeated on the cross. He is like a dog on a chain. He is shackled.

When Satan was bound through the life, death and resurrection of Jesus Christ then the kingdom of darkness was bound (including the beast and every demon). 2 Peter 2:4, Jude v 6, Revelation 9 and Revelation 20 all prove the whole demonic realm is currently restrained from stopping the free-flow of the Gospel. The bruising of the head of the beast (Revelation 13:3, 13:12 and 13:14) correlates with the bruising of the head of Satan 2,000 years ago through the earthly ministry of Christ (Genesis 3:15). They correspond with the spiritual binding imprisoning of Satan during the millennial period. These are figurative metaphors describing the impairment of the kingdom of darkness 2000 years ago.

When the Bible says “resist the devil, and he will flee from you” this is not limited to only Satan, it is talking about the whole demonic realm. When Satan is released prior to the second coming so also is the whole kingdom of darkness (including the beast and every demon). When they are finally punished they receive their punishment at the same time, albeit in the necessary order that Christ ordains (as we saw God judge in the Garden of Eden).

Revelation 12:9 shows the close linkage between Satan and his minions when they were banished from heaven after the man child was caught up to His throne: “the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil, and Satan, which deceiveth the whole world: he was cast out into the earth, and his angels were cast out with him.” Revelation 12:3-4 similar says: “behold a great red dragon, And his tail drew the third part of the stars of heaven, and did cast them to the earth: and the dragon stood before the woman which was ready to be delivered, for to devour her child as soon as it was born.” You cannot divide Satan from the fate of his angels.

Of course, Christ predicted the historic and eternal downfall of Satan in John 12:31-33, shortly before the cross: “Now is the judgment of this world: now shall the prince of this world be cast out. And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me. This he said, signifying what death he should die.”

Christ’s life, death and resurrection were the decisive blows against Satan. His defeat has already been wrought. This passage plainly shows the powerful result of Calvary and the deep impact it had upon Satan. It shows us that Satan is now under Christ’s feet and is now subject to His Sovereign will. Satan and his minions are barred from heaven. They have been banished after they were defeated 2,000 years ago. You just have to look at the seismic difference between the condition of the Gentiles in Old Testament times and what Satan was able to do throughout the globe compared to New Testament times and you will see the mammoth victory that Jesus wrought against the kingdom of darkness through His victorious First Advent. Premillennialists reject that.

All we have to do, is examine the fate of each in Scripture and we will quickly see a remarkable correlation.

The book of Revelation consists of a number of parallel recaps relating to the intra-Advent period. Each of these refer to different subjects, entities or aspects of God's unfolding plan during that time. That does not negate the fact that God's dealings with the beast mirrors that of Satan since Christ’s first Advent. For example, the 6th recap (Revelation 17-19) focuses in on Babylon, but also shows the destruction of all the wicked, the beast and false prophet been banished into the Lake of Fire. Satan is simply not the focus of that parallel. The focus of the last recap (Revelation 20) is God's dealing with Satan. Revelation 20 goes right back to the first resurrection (Christ). It finishes with Satan being banished to the Lake of Fire.

The restraint of the kingdom of darkness stays in effect until just before the second coming, when hell’s legions are collectively released – for a short season at the end. The release of Satan, beast (mystery of iniquity), and demons (scorpions) all occur just prior to the second coming. This proves that the symbolism of Revelation relates to the here-and-now.

Satan gets a little season to wreak havoc on the Church. When Satan is released for a little season then so is the beast, and Satan's minions. We see the devils in Revelation 9:2-3, the beast in 2 Thessalonians 2:3-12, Revelation 11:7 and Revelation 17:8, and Satan in Revelation 9:10-11 and Revelation 20:3 all being released before the second coming for a little season.

The end of the millennium and Satan's "little season" corresponds with the end time persecution spoke elsewhere in Revelation and in other Scripture orchestrated by antichrist/the beast (described as lasting 3 1/2 years). The millennium does not follow Revelation 17-19 in time, but rather parallels it. Revelation 20 is the last of 7 recapitulations.

What happens at the end of the millennium mirrors what other Scripture tells us happens at the end of our age. There is an intense persecution at the end. Christ comes to judge as it concludes. There is much Scripture that teaches an end-time falling away and tribulation before Christ comes. Revelation 20 fits that perfectly. Satan's season mirrors 2 Thessalonians 2 and the release of the mystery of iniquity before Jesus comes. As the ESV states: “the mystery of lawlessness is …the one whose coming is in accord with the activity of Satan, with all power and signs and false wonders, and with all the deception of wickedness for those who perish.” It also mirrors the release of the beast in order to wreak havoc before Christ comes.

After Satan's last throw comes the end! Christ comes in majestic and eternal glory to overthrow the kingdom of darkness forever. The demonic realm is all killed when Satan is destroyed at the climactic second coming and from the brightness of His glory (Isaiah 26:19-27:1, 2 Thessalonians 2:8, Revelation 19:20, 20:9-10).

What arrives at the second coming is the eternal state - perfection. The earth will be finally and wholly purged of the bondage of corruption, not as Premils argue: we are plagued with another age like ours full of sin and sinners, crying and dying, Satan and his demons. This alleged future Premil millennial kingdom ends with the wicked overrunning the age to come and surrounding Christ in all His glory and the glorified saints.
 
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claninja

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You cherry-pick your academic authorities, Bible-versions, original word meanings, historic detail, arguments and criterion to suit your beliefs. That is called manipulation. That is why is is hard to take your avoidance serious.

Start by proving that something literal and prophetic like a millennial period in Revelation 20 with a designed start time, finish time, and notable and repeatedly taught actual historic events, is an illusion. You have avoided this for long enough. This is only one of numerous errors involved in your theology.
Of course I cherry pick academic authorities, not “prove” my point, but to simply demonstrate that beliefs held by amils to premils are not exclusive to full preterism. There are many individuals on CF who are miseducated on partial preterism and thus erroneously conflate it with full preterism.

As to definitions and word meanings, no haven’t cherry picked those. That would be your department. You continuously deny definitions of words when they don’t fit your eschatology. You still haven’t provided any academic or scholarly source that states eggizo in the perfect tense does not mean imminent. If helps word studies is wrong, you should be able to provide a counter source as to why it is wrong. But I know, I know….you are not going to do it…….you will continue to deflect.

As to cherry picking bible versions, lol I have no idea what that means…..do you mean choosing the MGNT over the TR?
 
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claninja

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Satan gets a little season to wreak havoc on the Church. When Satan is released for a little season then so is the beast, and Satan's minions. We see the devils in Revelation 9:2-3, the beast in 2 Thessalonians 2:3-12, Revelation 11:7 and Revelation 17:8, and Satan in Revelation 9:10-11 and Revelation 20:3 all being released before the second coming for a little season.

You didn’t need to write the entire post. This little part was just fine.

So let me get this straight, you base your entire understanding Satan’s little season entirely on highly debatable passages ( 2 Thessalonians 2) and apocalyptic/symbolic texts (revelation)?
 
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claninja

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No idea of what your point is here and I don't think you made any attempt to see mine. Whatever. Moving on..

I understand. It can be easy to forget why you initially responded to one of my posts, when discussions begin to be splintered into a hundred other things. I’ve done the same thing.

I’ll refresh. You stated I ignore 1 Peter 5:9. I said I don’t because I believe the saints, whom Satan wars against, should heed peters words to flee from the devil, as well as pray for their brothers and sisters around the world suffering.

Your point seems to be that the saints could only flee the prowling devil looking to devour, and pray for their brothers and sisters suffering around the world if Satan was bound.


But I would ask, can the saints flee the prowling devil looking to devour, and pray for their brothers and sisters suffering around the world if Satan is loosed? yes, as obviously there were faithful followers of God prior to “Satan being bound”.



That is a lie. I have the evidence and have given it. You just don't accept it. But, saying something like this comes across as if you're saying that I don't even attempt to give any epistolic or gospel evidence, but I have. I don't appreciate your dishonest approach to these discussions.

There are no passages in the gospels and epistles that state something to the effect of satan being released to war against the saints for a little period of time, so that’s not a lie.

SG provided 2 Thessalonians 2 and revelation 9 as evidence of Satan’s little season.





You are acting as if Paul was talking about something that was already happening when he wrote 2nd Thessalonians, but he talked about the apostasy as a future event. Of course some were falling away from the faith almost from the very beginning, but this has to do with a mass falling away from the faith, not just some. And it has to do with a major increase in wickedness before the second coming of Christ. He has not yet come! I can't take any view seriously who tries to say that He has already come and that we've already been gathered to Him. He said elsewhere that the gathering will take place "in the air". That has clearly not yet happened! You don't take these things into account. You only see half of the picture and not the whole picture.

He did write about something that was already happening:

1.) Lawless was already actively at work

2.) the man of sins revealing was being actively restrained

3.) the man of sin was actively existing by the works of Satan

4.) God was actively sending delusions upon those who had not received the truth.

There is zero mention of Satan being restrained being restrained, bound, locked.

If revelation 20 refers to the man of sins revealing being restrained, how was it bound at Christs first advent?
 
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sovereigngrace

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You didn’t need to write the entire post. This little part was just fine.

So let me get this straight, you base your entire understanding Satan’s little season entirely on highly debatable passages ( 2 Thessalonians 2) and apocalyptic/symbolic texts (revelation)?

Unlike you and your Full Preterist brethren, the biblical writers were not fixated with some imaginary coming of Jesus in AD70. They were focused on His first coming and His earthly ministry and His literal physical visible final climactic return. These 2 Advents were the NT focus. Before His future return we see the outline of a period of time when wickedness, perversion, corruption, and consequently persecution will increase.

The end-time Church is portrayed as an apathetic Church; a Church that is going through the motions, a Church that has lost its spark. It has lost its way. It is a Church that has all the outward form without the inward reality. It has basically lost its zeal. It is uncommitted and unfaithful. It is impotent and faithless.

II Thessalonians 2:1-8 says, “Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming [Gr. parousia] of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him, That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of the Christ is at hand is at hand. Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away [Gr. apostasía or apostasy] first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God. Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, I told you these things? And now ye know what withholdeth (or restraineth) that he might be revealed in his time. For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way. And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming [Gr. parousia].

This tells me that there is going to be a great decline within the Church prior to Jesus return.

Strong's explains: defection from truth (properly the state), (“apostasy”): - falling away, forsake.

Thayer explains: a falling away, defection, apostasy

Middle English apostasie, from Late Latin apostasia, from Greek, literally, revolt, from aphistasthai to revolt, from apo-histasthai to stand — more at stand

No wonder Jesus asked in Luke 18:8 talking about the day of His return: when the Son of man cometh, shall he find faith on the earth?”

Obviously by this question we can deduce: Faith is going to be rare when He comes.

They say that you judge a man by his questions not by his answers because questions come from the heart. Here is a question from the heart of Christ – who is the Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last.

Jesus said in Matt 24:12: “iniquity shall abound, the love of many shall wax cold.”

As much as I would love to tell you that things are going to get better out there the Bible says the opposite.

2 Timothy 3:5 describes last days church members as: Having a form of godliness, but denying the power thereof: from such turn away.

Matthew 24:35-41 continues: “Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away. But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. But as the days of Noe were, so shall also the coming [Gr. parousia] of the Son of man be. For as in the days that were before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day that Noe entered into the ark, And knew not until the flood came, and took them all away; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be. Then shall two be in the field; the one ‘shall be taken’ [Gr. paralambano], and the other left. Two women shall be grinding at the mill; the one ‘shall be taken’ [Gr. paralambano], and the other left.”

The Lord uses the word parousia again in v 37 to equate the days preceding His coming to the days preceding Noah’s entry into the ark, saying, “as the days of Noe were, so shall also the parousia of the Son of man be.” In His reply, Christ confirmed, what the disciples already seem to have rightly comprehended, in their questioning, that His next Coming is His last and only future coming and that it ushers in “the end of the world (or age)”

We note three particular characteristics of this day, which will be repeated at the second coming of the Lord Jesus Christ. (1) The wicked lived as if there was no judgement coming, verse 38 says, “they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage.” (2) The wicked were caught unexpected, verse 39 says, they “knew not until the flood came.” And finally, (3) the wicked were ALL destroyed, verse 39 says, “the flood came, and took them all away.”

Thus, the second coming of the Lord shall come in like manner, verse 39 confirms, “so shall also the parousia of the Son of man be.
 
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Arctangent

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I have a question that I have not been able to figure out.
Amillenialist believe that we are in the 1000-year reign right now.
If this is correct, why is there so much evil in the world? Why are their false religions deceiving people, murder, rape, theft and many other things.
In the 1000 reign of Christ, satan was not only bound but he was also put into a pit and sealed so that he was unable to deceive people until the 1000 years were up. But many are being deceived right now.
In Rev 20:1-3 "Then I saw an angel coming down from heaven, holding the key of the abyss and a great chain in his hand. And he took hold of the dragon, the serpent of old, who is the devil and Satan, and bound him for a thousand years; and he threw him into the abyss and shut it and sealed it over him, so that he would not deceive the nations any longer, until the thousand years were completed; after these things he must be released for a short time."
So, how does the Amilleniall viewpoint reconcile this?
There are two primary passages from the Old Testament that establish the "amil" view, and which establish the paradigm continued into the New Testament.

One is Psalm 110:1-2 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit Thou at my right hand until I make Thine enemies Thy footstool. The LORD shall send the rod of Thy strength out of Zion: rule Thou in the midst of Thine enemies."

The other is from Daniel 7. The Ancient of Days takes his seat for judgment, and the beasts' power is taken away from them, but they are allowed to continue living for some period of time. Immediately after, the Son of Man ascends in the clouds to take His seat next to the Ancient of Days, and is given a Kingdom.

Christ judged the demonic powers when He died and descended into Sheol/Hades/Hell, filling the kingdom of death with Life and removing its power and authority. However, they were not judged in the ultimate sense, and are allowed to continue living among us. Christ then ascended into Heaven (end of the Gospels and beginning of Acts) to receive His Kingdom and to rule, and as such, He "rules in the midst of His enemies," and will continue to do so until He has made all of them His footstool.

We live in this period now, until Christ's second Appearing.

Revelation 20 is just another way of saying the same thing. Even if we take the passage about the bottomless pit "literally", there are still countless other demons other than Satan who were not cast into that bottomless pit.
 
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DavidPT

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The other is from Daniel 7. The Ancient of Days takes his seat for judgment, and the beasts' power is taken away from them, but they are allowed to continue living for some period of time. Immediately after, the Son of Man ascends in the clouds to take His seat next to the Ancient of Days, and is given a Kingdom.

When trying to view the text in the manner in which you are, it makes nonsense of the text, not sense of the text. If your interpretation is correct, it means Daniel 7:21 is meaning before His ascension rather than a time post His ascension and before His return in the end of this age.

It means now you have to explain what event/s in the first century prior to His ascension then explains the little horn per Daniel 7:21 being given to the burning flame. And if the majority of us are correct, that the lake of fire is meant here, you also have to explain how anyone can even be in the LOF already when it's not until Christ returns in the end of this age that anyone gets cast into the LOF.

You then have to also explain why John in the book of Revelation, where he clearly had those visions after Christ has already ascended, that he then placed the time of Daniel 7:21(the same event recorded in Revelation 13:5) in his future, and not in the past before Christ even ascended, thus your interpretation contradicting what John recorded.

The only way to square things here, Daniel 7:13-14 is parenthetical in that context, and not meaning that those verses are occurring during the same era of time involving the verses that are preceding it. Actually then, chronologically speaking, Daniel 7:13-14 is meaning before Daniel 7:9-12 is meaning, not after nor during instead. But I do at least agree that Daniel 7:13-14 is pertaining to His ascension 2000 years ago.
 
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Spiritual Jew

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There are no passages in the gospels and epistles that state something to the effect of satan being released to war against the saints for a little period of time, so that’s not a lie.
Are you pretending to not see my point? I'm not saying that what you said here is a lie. I'm saying for you to act as if I don't even attempt to present any scriptures that relate to Satan's binding is a lie. I have done that. I've never said I provided any that contain the wording you are looking for, but that doesn't mean I haven't presented any scriptures that I believe relate to Satan's binding and loosing. I have done that several times.

SG provided 2 Thessalonians 2 and revelation 9 as evidence of Satan’s little season.
I have provided those and others to you as well. So, you can't accuse me of not doing that just because you disagree that they relate to his binding. You come across as if I don't even attempt to provide the scriptures, but I do. I can't control whether you agree that they relate to Satan's binding or not.

He did write about something that was already happening:

1.) Lawless was already actively at work
But, it was held back and restrained to some extent. But, you disagree with that. Whatever. We've already been over this multiple times.

2.) the man of sins revealing was being actively restrained
I don't see Paul as having said that anywhere. I instead see him as talking about wickedness being restrained until a future time. Jesus Himself talked about a future time of increased wickedness (Matthew 24:11-12) which implies that it would be restrained to some extent until that time, so why couldn't Paul have been talking about the same thing?

3.) the man of sin was actively existing by the works of Satan
That's not what I see. It seems to me that Paul talked about the revealing of the man of sin occurring in the future and that it would be associated with the works of Satan. One thing we should both be willing to admit is that the English translations vary wildly in how they translate parts of 2nd Thessalonians 2, so that is part of the cause of our differing interpretations.

4.) God was actively sending delusions upon those who had not received the truth.
Again, I disagree. The way I see it, Paul talked about that in the future tense and not as something that was happening yet back then.

There is zero mention of Satan being restrained being restrained, bound, locked.
I believe it is implied because of the reference to wickedness being restrained and the reference to a future time when the man of sin/that wicked would come "after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders, And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish".

If revelation 20 refers to the man of sins revealing being restrained, how was it bound at Christs first advent?
Why are you asking me a question about something that I don't even believe? You're the one that believes that it talks about the man of sin's revealing being restrained, not me. I believe it's talking about lawlessness/wickedness being restrained until a later time when there would be an increase in wickedness, as even Jesus Himself talked about.
 
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Spiritual Jew

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Not at all. You should read my post. I was comparing man's time to God's time.

On this matter, a basic understanding of “time” and “eternity” will explain what we are looking at in Scripture. The phrase “at hand” or “near” is taken from the single Greek word eggizō, and simply means “approaches.” It is not time-specific. It can mean immediate or distant future, like our English word. In fact, it carries the exact same sense as our English word. It carries a broad meaning and does not in any way demand an imminent fulfilment. Other words like “quickly,” “shortly” and “near,” express time from God’s eternal standpoint, not man’s natural position. It is therefore wrong to force our dim earthly sense of time upon God. It is definitely foolish to build a whole theology upon that.
Right. In terms of Matthew 25:14-30, when Jesus indicated that He would leave and not come back for "a long time", He would obviously be speaking from His perspective as God and not from man's perspective. So, I am certain that He would not have considered 40 years to be a long time. But, do preterists take the "long time" of Matthew 25:19 as literally as they take words like "shortly" and "near" in other passages? Of course not. So, there is no consistency in their approach.
 
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Spiritual Jew

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Ironically, Premils claim you, and other amils, rip the millennium out of the text and turn it into something it’s not…….so i guess we are in the same boat.
No, we're not really in the same boat as you. What we don't do that you and maybe 2 or 3 other people in the world do (I don't how many share your view of Rev 20, but it can't be many) is deny that the thousand years represents an actual period of time with a beginning and an ending that is followed by an actual short period of time. We're in the same boat as Premils in that sense.
 
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Spiritual Jew

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I came across a non-Christian web site that was discussing how far away lightning can be observed by the human eye. Most of the responses from people were in the 100 to 150 mile range (160 to 240 kilometer). Someone gave a formula to show that under perfect conditions theoretically a person could observe lightning from approximately 273 miles (440 kilometers) away. Here’s the formula …



D = (2RH + H2 – 2Rh – h2)1/2

D is the maximum distance that lightning can be observed
R is the distance from the surface of the earth to the center of the earth, estimated at 4,000 miles
H is the height of the clouds, based on Wikipedia’s top most cloud layer that lightning comes from, which is 49,000 feet
h is the height of a person, 6 feet



Lightning is literally a local event and not a global event. If Christ’s coming is global why would a local, 273 mile radius, event be used to describe his coming?
The point Jesus made in Matthew 24:27 was to indicate how quickly He will come once He comes. It will happen as quickly as lightning flashes from the east to the west. His point in that verse had nothing to do with the scope of His coming. However, other verses indicate that His coming will be global (Matt 24:30-31,35-39; Mark 13:25-27,31 Luke 21:25-26,35) because they speak of things happening on the entire earth when He comes and that heaven and earth will pass away at that point (which lines up with passages like 2 Peter 3:10-13).
 
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grafted branch

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The point Jesus made in Matthew 24:27 was to indicate how quickly He will come once He comes. It will happen as quickly as lightning flashes from the east to the west. His point in that verse had nothing to do with the scope of His coming. However, other verses indicate that His coming will be global (Matt 24:30-31,35-39; Mark 13:25-27,31 Luke 21:25-26,35) because they speak of things happening on the entire earth when He comes and that heaven and earth will pass away at that point (which lines up with passages like 2 Peter 3:10-13).
Well, the reason I brought up the fact that lighting isn’t a global event was because SG was using various literal attributes of lighting and comparing them to the coming of Christ. SG conveniently left out the attribute of lightning being a local event.

Since you brought this up, how are you reconciling the coming of Christ in Matthew 24:37-39 where they were eating and drinking and knew not until the flood came with Luke 21:25-27 where there is distress of nations, sea and waves roaring, men’s hearts failing them, all happening prior to them seeing the Son of coming in the clouds?

It would seem there is either more than one coming in view or the coming lasts longer than just a flash of lightning.
 
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sovereigngrace

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Well, the reason I brought up the fact that lighting isn’t a global event was because SG was using various literal attributes of lighting and comparing them to the coming of Christ. SG conveniently left out the attribute of lightning being a local event.

Since you brought this up, how are you reconciling the coming of Christ in Matthew 24:37-39 where they were eating and drinking and knew not until the flood came with Luke 21:25-27 where there is distress of nations, sea and waves roaring, men’s hearts failing them, all happening prior to them seeing the Son of coming in the clouds?

It would seem there is either more than one coming in view or the coming lasts longer than just a flash of lightning.
His previous post actually answers this.
 
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grafted branch

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His previous post actually answers this.
Ok, so since people’s actions in Matthew 24:37-39 doesn’t line up with their actions in Luke 21:25-27 we must conclude that these verses are telling us His return will be global?
 
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DavidPT

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Ok, so since people’s actions in Matthew 24:37-39 doesn’t line up with their actions in Luke 21:25-27 we must conclude that these verses are telling us His return will be global?


Think about it for a moment. The first thing we need to be doing is noting that the time involving Matthew 24:15-26 is before the time involving stars falling from heaven, before the sign of the Son of man in heaven, and before the coming and gathering recorded in verses 30-31. Obviously then, unless we want to throw common sense out the window, the coming and gathering recorded in verse 30-31 can't occur during the events involving verses 15-26 if the text is already proving that the coming and gathering is meaning post those events.

But, this below also needs to be factored in, as to where this fits. Something you already brought up.

Matthew 24:39 And knew not until the flood came, and took them all away; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.

Since this involves the coming of the Son of man, we obviously know, or should know if we don't, it can't possibly fit during the era of time involving verses 15-26, the fact we are told the following pertaining to that era of time.

Matthew 24:23 Then if any man shall say unto you, Lo, here is Christ, or there; believe it not.
24 For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall shew great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect.
25 Behold, I have told you before.
26 Wherefore if they shall say unto you, Behold, he is in the desert; go not forth: behold, he is in the secret chambers; believe it not.


To apply anything recorded in verse 39 to that of the era of time involving verses 15-26 is to then contradict what verses 23-26 record. Does that or does that not record, that one is to not believe that the real Christ has come as of yet, in any sense, at this point in time? Of course it records that. It's right there in plain sight in black and white or even red since some Bibles record Jesus' words in red. How can anyone possibly misinterpret verses 23-26 and then take that to mean the real Christ has already come, in any sense? Obviously then, just like I indicated, verse 39 can't fit during verses 15-26. Yet, it has to fit somewhere.

Matthew 24:27 For as the lightning cometh out of the east, and shineth even unto the west; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.

And since this is undeniably talking about the coming of the Son of man, as is verse 39, and that verse 39 can't fit during verses 15-26 according to verses 23-26, the only option left, it fits during the coming involving verse 30. And it's not like, the fact God is God, that God can't do multiple things at the same time, as in multi-tasking. Surely, during the same coming event, not only can He do what is recorded in verses 30-31, He can also do what is recorded in verse 39.
 
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grafted branch

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Think about it for a moment. The first thing we need to be doing is noting that the time involving Matthew 24:15-26 is before the time involving stars falling from heaven, before the sign of the Son of man in heaven, and before the coming and gathering recorded in verses 30-31. Obviously then, unless we want to throw common sense out the window, the coming and gathering recorded in verse 30-31 can't occur during the events involving verses 15-26 if the text is already proving that the coming and gathering is meaning post those events.

But, this below also needs to be factored in, as to where this fits. Something you already brought up.

Matthew 24:39 And knew not until the flood came, and took them all away; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.

Since this involves the coming of the Son of man, we obviously know, or should know if we don't, it can't possibly fit during the era of time involving verses 15-26, the fact we are told the following pertaining to that era of time.

Matthew 24:23 Then if any man shall say unto you, Lo, here is Christ, or there; believe it not.
24 For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall shew great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect.
25 Behold, I have told you before.
26 Wherefore if they shall say unto you, Behold, he is in the desert; go not forth: behold, he is in the secret chambers; believe it not.


To apply anything recorded in verse 39 to that of the era of time involving verses 15-26 is to then contradict what verses 23-26 record. Does that or does that not record, that one is to not believe that the real Christ has come as of yet, in any sense, at this point in time? Of course it records that. It's right there in plain sight in black and white or even red since some Bibles record Jesus' words in red. How can anyone possibly misinterpret verses 23-26 and then take that to mean the real Christ has already come, in any sense? Obviously then, just like I indicated, verse 39 can't fit during verses 15-26. Yet, it has to fit somewhere.

Matthew 24:27 For as the lightning cometh out of the east, and shineth even unto the west; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.

And since this is undeniably talking about the coming of the Son of man, as is verse 39, and that verse 39 can't fit during verses 15-26 according to verses 23-26, the only option left, it fits during the coming involving verse 30. And it's not like, the fact God is God, that God can't do multiple things at the same time, as in multi-tasking. Surely, during the same coming event, not only can He do what is recorded in verses 30-31, He can also do what is recorded in verse 39.
I agree the tribulation of those days happens prior to the signs of the Son of man in heaven.

During the tribulation of those days the instructions are not to believe anyone declaring where the Son of man is. Apparently there was or will be a lot of this going on prior to His coming.

But when we get to Matthew 24:39 it appears that nobody will even know anything about the coming (except for believers).

I’m not advocating this idea but strictly from a chronological order, looking at Matthew 24 a person could say the first coming is preceded by tribulation and is not an unknown, out of the blue coming. The next coming is out of the blue because normal activity is going on prior to the coming (at least for unbelievers).
 
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claninja

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Are you pretending to not see my point? I'm not saying that what you said here is a lie. I'm saying for you to act as if I don't even attempt to present any scriptures that relate to Satan's binding is a lie. I have done that. I've never said I provided any that contain the wording you are looking for, but that doesn't mean I haven't presented any scriptures that I believe relate to Satan's binding and loosing. I have done that several times.


I have provided those and others to you as well. So, you can't accuse me of not doing that just because you disagree that they relate to his binding. You come across as if I don't even attempt to provide the scriptures, but I do. I can't control whether you agree that they relate to Satan's binding or not.


But, it was held back and restrained to some extent. But, you disagree with that. Whatever. We've already been over this multiple times.


I don't see Paul as having said that anywhere. I instead see him as talking about wickedness being restrained until a future time. Jesus Himself talked about a future time of increased wickedness (Matthew 24:11-12) which implies that it would be restrained to some extent until that time, so why couldn't Paul have been talking about the same thing?


That's not what I see. It seems to me that Paul talked about the revealing of the man of sin occurring in the future and that it would be associated with the works of Satan. One thing we should both be willing to admit is that the English translations vary wildly in how they translate parts of 2nd Thessalonians 2, so that is part of the cause of our differing interpretations.


Again, I disagree. The way I see it, Paul talked about that in the future tense and not as something that was happening yet back then.


I believe it is implied because of the reference to wickedness being restrained and the reference to a future time when the man of sin/that wicked would come "after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders, And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish".


Why are you asking me a question about something that I don't even believe? You're the one that believes that it talks about the man of sin's revealing being restrained, not me. I believe it's talking about lawlessness/wickedness being restrained until a later time when there would be an increase in wickedness, as even Jesus Himself talked about.

I mean, if you were to ask a premil for clear and explicit teachings about the millennium from other scriptures in order to support their interpretation of the millennium, and they provided more highly debated passages such Zechariah 14 or Isaiah 65, or Ezekiel 38-39, should I assume that you would take those passages as acceptable evidence for premil? Based on your past conversations with premil, something tells me no……..

as for 2 Thessalonians 2:

The “mystery” of lawlessness was already work-present tense verb- (2 Thessalonians 2:7), and the man of sin was already existing -present tense verb- by the works of Satan (2 Thessalonians 2:9). If he didn’t exist yet, not sure how he would be restrained? If you disagree, I would be interested in understanding why.

Grammatically, The restrainer being removed would “reveal” the man of sin that was already existing by the works of Satan and the lawlessness that was already at work.

***As far as God sending the delusion, the TR has future tense but the Mgnt has present tense. Both passages contain past tense of “did not receive the truth”. Due to the differences in manuscripts, I’ll throw this one out, though my personal preference is the Mgnt***

I’m just struggling to understand your position how Satan’s little season is solely related to the revealing of the man of sin, when he was already deceiving as an angel of light, working through the sons of disobedience, blinding unbelievers, prowling and looking to devour, leading some astray, throwing saints in prison, and even killing saints.
 
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