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Protoevangelium of James

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Sophrosyne

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Hey thanks, you can google stuff like that, good to know, I google words but not non words, so thanks:thumbsup:
You can search for anything that has keyboard characters in a search engine. The search engines just essentially "copy" every page online they come across to a huge database sometimes omitting words and phrases that are unneeded like "a" and "and" etc. On the left side of Google you can choose a category and get results from shopping or discussion or even just images of stuff which I have used a lot to try and track down something that I know what it looks like but don't have the exact part or model number of it.
 
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Kepha

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Start a new thread on it. Barring that, we are left with #2 (until 400ad when Jerome invents the cousin theory = catholicanswers.com).
Again, St. Jerome named off quite a few people, including one who was used agasint him. But hey, because we don't have those works anymore it means they never existed right therefore your position is istantly the right one.

The gnostic PoJ is saying the birth was not normal. The truth is it was.
Disagree with your intepretation of said text 100 percent.

I've asked numerous times for quotes from that time (c100-200ad) about this.
If we had all of the CF's teachings ever placed on paper, only then you attempt to use this as proof it was never taught. Until then it's only your personal conclusions that carry zero weight for all of Christianity.
 
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Montalban

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In post #492 it was said that the conclusion was pre-supposed – that is in fact what it was addressing – a pre-supposed conclusion.

The church (which apparently StandingUp wants to agree with this time) may reject a book but that doesn't mean it contains no truth.

Furthermore it leaps to a coclusion not founded in the premise – that there is 'scriptural tradition' (whatever that is) that the brothers of Jesus were sons of Mary.

Therefore in summary there's no evidence that a rejection of a book is said to contain no truth in it.

There's a leap to a conclusion about a 'scriptural tradition' that is a non-sequitur.

Even if Jerome invents a 'cousin theory' this doesn't mean that the 'brothers' are real brothers. They could also be 'fraternal' brothers as in "all men are my brother".
 
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Standing Up

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Using "Virgin" as an appellation, when it postdates her sojourn on earth, is a statement of ever-viriginity. (Else, it would be for example, Mary then a virgin, Mary while she was yet virgin, etc.)

Not so. Not at all. Irenaeus:

" For what the virgin Eve had bound fast through unbelief, this did the virgin Mary set free through faith. "

He knew Eve had 3 sons, yet called her the virgin Eve. His saying virgin Mary means zero as to her state after Christ's normal birth.

But this thread is about the gnostic PoJ.
 
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Standing Up

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Does anyone have any quotes from Early Church Fathers that assert Mary was not ever-virgin? Anyone before Luther (even though Luther himself took it for granted)?

Please read through the thread. There's at least these:

Clement of Alexandria.
Africanus
Hegesipius
Origen
Tertullian
Cyril of Jerusalem
Helvidius.

Read the quote above your post from Ireaneus about the virgin Eve. He knew she had 3 sons, yet called her the virgin Eve. So, it means nothing as to her perpetual state, if someone back then says, the virgin Mary.

But this isn't about the EV. It's about the gnostic, contradictory PoJ.
 
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SolomonVII

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Montalban

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Does anyone have any quotes from Early Church Fathers that assert Mary was not ever-virgin? Anyone before Luther (even though Luther himself took it for granted)?

That's one challenge. Another (still un-addressed) was to find any ECFs saying that Mary had othert sons

The best one might expect is to get a 'go research this for me' type of response
 
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Standing Up

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Again, St. Jerome named off quite a few people, including one who was used agasint him. But hey, because we don't have those works anymore it means they never existed right therefore your position is istantly the right one.

In thinking about this, Jerome was not exactly accurate in his portrayal. 2 reasons. 1 he doesn't mention any of the others (Clement of A, Origen, Tertullian, Africanus, etc) we know argued against the PoJ. 2 he only references the heretics who thought Jesus was born a man and adopted as Christ at baptism. IOW, Jerome is comparing apples and oranges.

"Ignatius, Polycarp, Irenæus, Justin Martyr, and many other apostolic and eloquent men, who against Ebion, Theodotus of Byzantium, and Valentinus, held these same views,"
-against helvidius- by Jerome

Ebion, Theodotus and Valentinus were forerunners of Arianism (adoptionism). No doubt Polycarp, Ignatius, Irenaaes, and Martyr argued against adoptionism. But that is not to say they argued against the brothers of Jesus by Joseph/Mary. In fact, Jerome can't produce any evidence of it, which is why he makes orange juice while he's trying to make apple juice.

Not exactly an honest comparison by Jerome.
 
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Ortho_Cat

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Please read through the thread. There's at least these:

Clement of Alexandria.
Africanus
Hegesipius
Origen
Tertullian
Cyril of Jerusalem
Helvidius.

Read the quote above your post from Ireaneus about the virgin Eve. He knew she had 3 sons, yet called her the virgin Eve. So, it means nothing as to her perpetual state, if someone back then says, the virgin Mary.

But this isn't about the EV. It's about the gnostic, contradictory PoJ.

If the PoJ didn't address Mary's ever-virginity, would it have even been brought up? It seems that is the primary reason you have taken an interest in it.

So let's take a look at these then:

St. Clement of Alexandria:

"But, as appears, many even down to our own time, regard Mary, on account of the birth of her child, as having been in the puerperal state, although she was not. For some say that, after she brought forth, she was found, when examined, to be a virgin. Now such to us are the Scriptures of the Lord, which gave birth to the truth and continue virgin, in the concealment of the mysteries of the truth. 'And she brought forth, and yet brought not forth' says the Scripture; as having conceived of herself and not from conjunction. ("The Stromata, or Miscellanies" in The Ante-Nicene Fathers, vol. II, ed. Alexander Roberts and James Donaldson)

[FONT=arial, helvetica, geneva, sans-serif]Origen[/FONT]
[FONT=arial, helvetica, geneva, sans-serif] [/FONT]
[FONT=arial, helvetica, geneva, sans-serif][/FONT]
"The Book [the Protoevangelium] of James [records] that the brethren of Jesus were sons of Joseph by a former wife, whom he married before Mary. Now those who say so wish to preserve the honor of Mary in virginity to the end, so that body of hers which was appointed to minister to the Word . . . might not know intercourse with a man after the Holy Spirit came into her and the power from on high overshadowed her. And I think it in harmony with reason that Jesus was the firstfruit among men of the purity which consists in [perpetual] chastity, and Mary was among women. For it were not pious to ascribe to any other than to her the firstfruit of virginity" (Commentary on Matthew 2:17 [A.D. 248]).

Tertullian

Turning now to the law, which is properly ours— that is, to the Gospel— by what kind of examples are we met, until we come to definite dogmas? Behold, there immediately present themselves to us, on the threshold as it were, the two priestesses of Christian sanctity, Monogamy and Continence: one modest, in Zechariah the priest; one absolute, in John the forerunner: one appeasing God; one preaching Christ: one proclaiming a perfect priest;....For who was more worthily to perform the initiatory rite on the body of the Lord, than flesh similar in kind to that which conceived and gave birth to that (body)? And indeed it was a virgin, about to marry once for all after her delivery, who gave birth to Christ, in order that each title of sanctity might be fulfilled in Christ's parentage, by means of a mother who was both virgin, and wife of one husband. (On Monagamy 8)

St. Cyril of Jerusalem

And whenI( i.e. Cyril) had burned his books, I said unto him 'Who...[One leaf wanting]...He to Whom no form can be assigned was born [in the form of] a son. He was the Beginning, and He Who had no beginning was brought forth. Now there was a beginning to that humanity, but the Godhead had no beginning, and was without form. Andno addition took place to the Trinity in such wise that the Trinity, which consisteth of Three [Persons], became Four [Persons]. One sunodoV entered one who was of two natures, and one son was brought forth, a unity of the flesh without any diminution. For He was neither changed in His nature, nor reduced in His strength, nor was He separated from His Ancient Begetter, that is to say, the Beginning. But the oneness of the flesh of God received one Nature. As for the coming to us of the Blessed Offspring God the Word, it is the miracle that was hidden in God from eternity, I mean the miracleof God Who made Himself man. An impenetrable mysteryis the Nature that abolished the curse and destroyed the sentence of death, [p. 640] and taught us concerning the foundation, which had no beginning, of the Only-begotten One, Jesus the Christ, our Lord, the production, accordingto the flesh, of the womb of SaintMary, the perpetual Virgin, in whose holy house we are I gathered together this day to commemorate the day of her death. If thou wilt confess these things with a true and sincere belief then we will prepare to receive thee into the fold of all the sheep of the loving Shepherd Christ. Have no doubt about the matter; thou must either follow the words which I have taught thee or thou must get outside this place.' And Annarikhus opened his mouth and anathematized the heresy of Ebion and Harpocratius, saying, 'Anathema be every heresy; the things which thou [Ebion] hast said unto me are not to be believed. And now, O my father, receive thou me into good fellowship with thyself.' And when I knew that his mind had received the light I baptized him in the name of the Lady of us all, Saint Mary, whose day is this day. Finally he went to a monasteryintheMount ofOlives,andhebuildeduponthefoundationoftheApostles untilthedayofhisdeath... (Cyril of Jerusalem, Homily on the Dormition).

So I pullled up quotes from the most notable writers that you mentioned (very quickly I might add; and I haven't even looked at the other's yet). And I found them all to assert that Mary remained a virgin. What do you think the chances are that if i investigate the other alleged claims, they will be without foundation as well? I expected better research than this...
 
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Ortho_Cat

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To use this For what the virgin Eve had bound fast through unbelief, this did the virgin Mary set free through faith

Is a bad example. Eve IS NOT ALWAYS referred to as "Virgin Eve"

I don't see how could such a statement be used to imply that Mary had more children? :confused:
 
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Standing Up

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I don't see how could such a statement be used to imply that Mary had more children? :confused:

The claim was made that 1800 years ago, if one used the virgin X, it must mean ever virgin. Not true.

Ireaneus says, the virgin Eve, yet he knew she had more children. So when he says, the virgin Mary, he in no way implies anything about her subsequent state after the birth of Christ.

Seriously though, you don't understand that?
 
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Standing Up

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If the PoJ didn't address Mary's ever-virginity, would it have even been brought up? It seems that is the primary reason you have taken an interest in it.-snip-..

Not at all. Not about EV, but about the PoJ. The book is gnostic to the core. Why do believers continue to use it?
 
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Ortho_Cat

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The claim was made that 1800 years ago, if one used the virgin X, it must mean ever virgin. Not true.

Ireaneus says, the virgin Eve, yet he knew she had more children. So when he says, the virgin Mary, he in no way implies anything about her subsequent state after the birth of Christ.

Seriously though, you don't understand that?

My point being, you cannot make a positive assertion that Mary had more children from that passage from Irenaeus. At best you can say it doesn't claim ever-virginity.
 
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Ortho_Cat

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Not at all. Not about EV, but about the PoJ. The book is gnostic to the core. Why do believers continue to use it?

what do you mean by "use" it? Just because it contains gnostic elements, doesn't mean there isn't a shred of truth in it.

Look at the gospel of Thomas, there are many parallel sayings in there that are supported by (or found directly in) scripture. There are gnostic elements in it, but that does not negate the portions of it that are trustworthy.
 
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Standing Up

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My point being, you cannot make a positive assertion that Mary had more children from that passage from Irenaeus. At best you can say it doesn't claim ever-virginity.

I don't. I don't recall mentioning Irenaeus at all, until yesterday when it dawned on me he uses the exact phrase "the virgin Eve" and "the virgin Mary".

It was the reverse claim that several have made over and over. They were claiming when the phrase "the virgin Mary" is sourced from 1800 years ago it necessarily means ever-virgin. Irenaeus has shown them wrong. Irenaeus says, the virgin Eve, knowing she had children. So, the phrase "the virgin Mary" refers only to her status at conception (agreement). It does not have anything to do with her state thereafter.

So, those who continue to say this, they simply choose to draw their assumption from the gnostic PoJ that begat the tradition Mary gave birth from her side (the east gate), from a light, to a young child who took the breast, and remained intact afterward. (That may sound weird to you, but you can read the birth of Jesus thread for more info, or back through this thread.)
 
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My point being, you cannot make a positive assertion that Mary had more children from that passage from Irenaeus. At best you can say it doesn't claim ever-virginity.
[bolded, underlined for attention]

...this may help...

...so, according to the Holy Scriptures, let's compare:

Let us take a look at “Mary” [Matthew 1:16,18,20, 2:11, 13:55; Mark 6:3; Luke 1:27,30,34,38,39,41,46,56, 2:5,16,19,34; Acts 1:14], “the mother of Jesus” [John 2:1,3; Acts 1:14; see also “his mother” - Matthew 1:18, 2:11; Luke 2:34,43; John 19:25; and “mother” - also John 6:42] who was “espoused to Joseph”.

Mary was "betrothed" to Joseph before she had ever heard any message from the Angel. For what purpose was she betrothed? Was it not to be married to Joseph? What purpose in the marriage then if not to have it consumated as is given to them by God from Creation? Was their marriage never to be consumated? Perhaps we could look some more at the scriptures?

What has Paul's common sense to say about such:

Defraud ye not one the other, except [it be] with consent for a time, that ye may give yourselves to fasting and prayer; and come together again, that Satan tempt you not for your incontinency. - 1 Corinthians 7:5

But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you. - 1 Corinthians 7:28

There is difference [also] between a wife and a virgin. The unmarried woman careth for the things of the Lord, that she may be holy both in body and in spirit: but she that is married careth for the things of the world, how she may please [her] husband. - 1 Corinthians 7:34

They had both consented that Joseph would not lie with her while she was with child. Yet what does the above texts reveal? It is not a sin for Joseph and Mary (whom was betrothed to Joseph), being married to consumate their marriage.

For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh. - Ephesians 5:31

Let thy fountain be blessed: and rejoice with the wife of thy youth. - Proverbs 5:18

Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh. - Genesis 2:24

[Whoso] findeth a wife findeth a good [thing], and obtaineth favour of the LORD. - Proverbs 18:22

If he take him another [wife]; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish.
- Exodus 21:10 (though speaking of the rules of those who had already had multiple wives in those days, the same can still apply to those who have been widowed and marry another.)

It is not degrading for Mary to have been with Joseph after the birth of Jesus, for this is the gift of God in marriage. It is for their pleasure and comfort, joy and delight in each other, to reveal their love to one another in the closest way possible that two people can know. It is also for their safe-keeping from wandering to another. It is also the picture of family and of relationships that we are given as an example.

She also had to be purified after the birth of Jesus ('...when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished..." - Luke 2:22), and the marriage to Joseph eventually had to be consumated, which is the right of the married. See Genesis 2:24; Matthew 19:5; Mark 10:7 and Joseph was to eventually 'perform the duty of the husband' (see Matthew 1:25). The marriage bed is not defiled by such, for it is in the will of God ('Marriage [is] honourable in all, and the bed undefiled:...' - Hebrews 13:4).

A question we could ask, “Should she be deprived of the joy of her husband Joseph whom she had been espoused to before she had ever known of that which was to come about?”

God created sex within marriage to be a delight and joy, not something to be shunned, or avoided.

Would it have been fair to Joseph who had agreed to remain with her and marry her to not be able to spend such time with his wife, Mary (she who had been betrothed to him)? Is God cruel in this way? No, God is love.
 
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Ortho_Cat

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[bolded, underlined for attention]

...this may help...

...so, according to the Holy Scriptures, let's compare:

Let us take a look at “Mary” [Matthew 1:16,18,20, 2:11, 13:55; Mark 6:3; Luke 1:27,30,34,38,39,41,46,56, 2:5,16,19,34; Acts 1:14], “the mother of Jesus” [John 2:1,3; Acts 1:14; see also “his mother” - Matthew 1:18, 2:11; Luke 2:34,43; John 19:25; and “mother” - also John 6:42] who was “espoused to Joseph”.

Mary was "betrothed" to Joseph before she had ever heard any message from the Angel. For what purpose was she betrothed? Was it not to be married to Joseph? What purpose in the marriage then if not to have it consumated as is given to them by God from Creation? Was their marriage never to be consumated? Perhaps we could look some more at the scriptures?

What has Paul's common sense to say about such:

Defraud ye not one the other, except [it be] with consent for a time, that ye may give yourselves to fasting and prayer; and come together again, that Satan tempt you not for your incontinency. - 1 Corinthians 7:5

But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you. - 1 Corinthians 7:28

There is difference [also] between a wife and a virgin. The unmarried woman careth for the things of the Lord, that she may be holy both in body and in spirit: but she that is married careth for the things of the world, how she may please [her] husband. - 1 Corinthians 7:34

They had both consented that Joseph would not lie with her while she was with child. Yet what does the above texts reveal? It is not a sin for Joseph and Mary (whom was betrothed to Joseph), being married to consumate their marriage.

For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh. - Ephesians 5:31

Let thy fountain be blessed: and rejoice with the wife of thy youth. - Proverbs 5:18

Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh. - Genesis 2:24

[Whoso] findeth a wife findeth a good [thing], and obtaineth favour of the LORD. - Proverbs 18:22

If he take him another [wife]; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish. - Exodus 21:10 (though speaking of the rules of those who had already had multiple wives in those days, the same can still apply to those who have been widowed and marry another.)

It is not degrading for Mary to have been with Joseph after the birth of Jesus, for this is the gift of God in marriage. It is for their pleasure and comfort, joy and delight in each other, to reveal their love to one another in the closest way possible that two people can know. It is also for their safe-keeping from wandering to another. It is also the picture of family and of relationships that we are given as an example.

She also had to be purified after the birth of Jesus ('...when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished..." - Luke 2:22), and the marriage to Joseph eventually had to be consumated, which is the right of the married. See Genesis 2:24; Matthew 19:5; Mark 10:7 and Joseph was to eventually 'perform the duty of the husband' (see Matthew 1:25). The marriage bed is not defiled by such, for it is in the will of God ('Marriage [is] honourable in all, and the bed undefiled:...' - Hebrews 13:4).

A question we could ask, “Should she be deprived of the joy of her husband Joseph whom she had been espoused to before she had ever known of that which was to come about?”

God created sex within marriage to be a delight and joy, not something to be shunned, or avoided.

Would it have been fair to Joseph who had agreed to remain with her and marry her to not be able to spend such time with his wife, Mary (she who had been betrothed to him)? Is God cruel in this way? No, God is love.

would you attempt to eat fruit from the burning bush?
 
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