• Starting today August 7th, 2024, in order to post in the Married Couples, Courting Couples, or Singles forums, you will not be allowed to post if you have your Marital status designated as private. Announcements will be made in the respective forums as well but please note that if yours is currently listed as Private, you will need to submit a ticket in the Support Area to have yours changed.

  • CF has always been a site that welcomes people from different backgrounds and beliefs to participate in discussion and even debate. That is the nature of its ministry. In view of recent events emotions are running very high. We need to remind people of some basic principles in debating on this site. We need to be civil when we express differences in opinion. No personal attacks. Avoid you, your statements. Don't characterize an entire political party with comparisons to Fascism or Communism or other extreme movements that committed atrocities. CF is not the place for broad brush or blanket statements about groups and political parties. Put the broad brushes and blankets away when you come to CF, better yet, put them in the incinerator. Debate had no place for them. We need to remember that people that commit acts of violence represent themselves or a small extreme faction.
  • We hope the site problems here are now solved, however, if you still have any issues, please start a ticket in Contact Us

Protestants Versus Catholics forum...

Status
Not open for further replies.
B

BlalronResurrected

Guest
The Greek manuscripts of Matthew are in themselves TRANSLATIONS of a no-longer-extant "Aramaic Matthew"

I believe the Greek manuscripts must be just as inspired as any Aramaic manuscript that may have existed, since God saw fit that the Greek would be the language it was preserved in.

and of course Jesus spoke these lines to Peter in Aramaic anyway; no one disputes that.

He probably spoke it in Aramaic. But it's also possible that he spoke it in Greek. You have to take into account that Greek was a common language back then which was commonly used by Jews, and many of them read from the Greek Septuagint translation of the Old Testmanent.

I'm sure Jesus knew Greek since he is the Son of God, hence very knowledgable. When he spoke to Pontius Pilate, it must have been in Greek, because it's doubtful that Pilate spoke in Aramaic.
 
Upvote 0
H

Habakkuk3

Guest
_______________________

Peter is indeed the Rock Jesus was speaking of, but this does not preclude other rocks.
_______________________

Now yer cookin' with Crisco, Desmios --

and I kept clickin' til it's all Greek to me now !! Yee-haw!!

Ahh!! NOT goin' blind or crazy -- not just yet anyhoo!!

(It's only my second day with this ISP/browser from home...)

Blalron -- I can see a case for the "inspiration" of the Greek of Matthew on the "preservation" angle;
but now, Jesus and Simon Peter, both Galileeans, conversing in Greek together, nawww - seems a stretch...

then why are there so many straight transliterations from Aramaic

like

talitha cumi

&

eli eli lama sabachthani

etc?

----------

I don't know that Peter was fluent in Greek either.

I personally believe he wrote both Epistles attributed to him.

(Many scholars say 2nd Peter is not by him, some say neither is.)

I think they both are, and the reason 1st Peter is "better Greek" is right there in it -- Peter was helped in the 1st Epistle by Silas (Roman name - Sylvanus)

whose help there is no similar mention of in 2nd Peter.

we know from the jail incident at Phillipi that both Paul and Silas were Roman citizens; and as such may have had more formal education --

it's just a logical thing to me to explain that 2nd Peter is really by Peter but lacks the polished style of 1st Peter - Silas was helping Peter "ghost" the first one; Peter was of urgency to get out the second one before he "departed his earthly tabernacle" as shown...
 
Upvote 0
B

BlalronResurrected

Guest
A little later the bystanders came up and said to Peter, "Surely you too are one of them; for even the way you talk gives you away ." Matthew 26:73

This indicates that Peter knew Greek (although he had an accent which gave his identity away).

There's no indication that Jesus was using an interpreter when talking to Pilate. So we have the possibility that the two spoke to each other in Greek (although they probably spoke to each other in their native language, Aramaic).
 
Upvote 0
H

Habakkuk3

Guest
This indicates that Peter knew Greek (although he had an accent which gave his identity away).
Fraid not.

Peter's "accent" that "gave him away IN JERUSALEM" was the speech of a GALILEEAN -- not "speaking in Koine Greek" -- it was SPEAKING ARAMAIC (the tongue of Galilee which was north of Samaria)

that "gave Peter away" in that scenario -- "You are too His disciple -- you speak the Galileean-talk that your Rabbi does!" is what they were saying.

.
.
.

Yes Desmios, I follow you on the "first among equals" thing.

I seem to remember a case where a bishop of one see other than Rome (Dionysius by name) did not have the support of his people(on some matter); & the people took the issue up with the bishop of Rome, in appeal (oddly, the bishop of Rome's name was also Dionysius).

So from Rome came a letter:

Dionysius,
This is Dionysius,
Yer people are right, yer wrong.

That was before things got too "schizzed out", right?

That was "the way it was always sposed ta werk" so to speak.

Well, ya caint blame it on any Protestants that it didn't hold up, now, kin ye?

Peace.

And the bishop of Rome
 
Upvote 0
About 260 Bishop Dionysius of Alexandria wrote his letter to Ammonius and Euphranor against Sabellianism in which he expressed himself with inexactness as to the Logos and its relation to God the Father. Upon this an accusation against him was laid before Pope Dionysius who called a synod at Rome about 260 for the settlement of the matter. The pope issued, in his own name and that of the council, an important doctrinal letter in which, first, the erroneous doctrine of Sabellius was again condemned and, then, the false opinions of those were rejected who, like the Marcionites, in a similar manner separate the Divine monarchy into three entirely distinct hypostases or who represent the Son of God as a created being, while the Holy Scriptures declare Him to have been begotten passages in the Bible, such as Deut., xxxii, 6, Prov., viii, 22, cannot be cited in support of false doctrines such as these. Along with this doctrinal epistle Pope Dionysius sent a separate letter to the Alexandrian Bishop in which the latter was called on to explain his views. This Dionysius of Alexandria did in his "Apologia". According to the ancient practice of the Roman Church Dionysius also extended his care to the faithful of distant lands. When the Christians of Cappadocia were in great distress from the marauding incursions of the Goths, the pope addressed a consolatory letter to the Church of Caesarea and sent a large sum of money by messengers for the redemption of enslaved Christians. The great synod of Antioch which deposed Paul of Samosata sent a circular letter to Pope Dionysius and Bishop Maximus of Alexandria concerning its proceedings. After death the body of Dionysius was buried in the papal crypt in the catacomb of Callistus.

None of this implies the Supremacy of Jurisdiction. Primacy of Honor, definitely, tremendous respect for the Pope, which at even at that early time was well known as a bastion of orthodoxy, yes, but jurisdiction, no.
 
Upvote 0
Status
Not open for further replies.