I'm currently in a discussion with someone about the excesses of our faiths and he states that the results of the Inquisition pales in comparison to the "Protestant Genocides". I don't know what they supposedly were but as a reader of history I'm not familiar with such. Was there anything such as that or do you think he may be blowing this up out of proportion.
On a somewhat related note he tried to convince me that King Henry VIII and Queen Elizabeth I were Protestants but I said that they were "Protestants" only because of political expediency which he, of course, refused to accept.
On a somewhat related note he tried to convince me that King Henry VIII and Queen Elizabeth I were Protestants but I said that they were "Protestants" only because of political expediency which he, of course, refused to accept.