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ThePilgrim

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Uh... Russian Orthodox are part of the Eastern Orthodox Church.

Armenian Catholics and Copts are part of the Oriental Orthodox Church.

They aren't separate groups.

And for what it's worth, the SSPX does not consider Rome to be sede vacante. The claim adherence to Pope Benedict XVI. Perhaps you're thinking of the sedevacantists?

Grace and peace,
John
 
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Tonks

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ThePilgrim said:
And for what it's worth, the SSPX does not consider Rome to be sede vacante. The claim adherence to Pope Benedict XVI. Perhaps you're thinking of the sedevacantists?

Grace and peace,
John

True. However, they might as well be sedevacantists. They do require the SSPX "converts" to undergo rebaptism etc.

AWC-

The SSPX were birthed during the theological and disiplinary (including praxis et al) reforms that occured during VII. They formed in 1970.
 
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a_ntv

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Augustine_Was_Calvinist said:
Yes it is a perfect portrait of the universal Church of Christ, but not of the Roman Catholic Church.

not of the Roman Catholic Church, as well
not of the Calvinist Church, as well
not of the Lutheran Church, as well
not of the Anglican Church, as well
not of the Baptist Church, and so on

No Church is perfect here on the earth
 
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a_ntv

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The disunitu between apostolic churches is not huge

There are differences, but really minor in comparison with Calvinist and Baptist Churches....think to Eucharistic, Penance, bishop role, Mary...
 
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ThePilgrim

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That would go against most of what I've heard about them. Do you have any citation about this?
 
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ETide

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Benedicta00 said:
And this is what the BIBLE itself says the four marks of the true Church are.

FOUR MARKS OF THE TRUE CHURCH
The Church we seek must be one, holy, catholic, and apostolic.

IMO, the scriptures are clear as to what the church of God actually is.. although I'd be interested in what this person considers HOLY.. ie, what is your definition or understanding of holiness and how does the church fit that ?
 
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Tonks

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ThePilgrim said:
That would go against most of what I've heard about them. Do you have any citation about this?

The last few sentences being key.

Why does the Society of Saint Pius X administer conditionally the sacraments of baptism and confirmation to those who received them in the Novus Ordo?
It is forbidden for a priest to administer a sacrament conditionally unless there is some doubt about the validity of the sacrament already received. A mere suspicion does not suffice, but any real doubt does (i.e., when there is a positive reason to think that the sacrament might have been invalidly administered), since the sacraments are so necessary for the salvation and sanctification of our souls.
In general there is no doubt as to the validity of the sacrament of baptism administered in the post-Conciliar Church, since the matter and the form are very simple and have been retained, despite the whole new theology replacing the washing of original sin (and actual sin in adults) from the soul with the nebulous social concept of belonging to a community. In general, there is no reason to doubt that the priest has the intention of doing what the Church does, even though he may have a false notion of what this is. However, it will happen from time to time, that the sacrament is administered in such a sacrilegious way as to place in doubt even the matter or form or even the intention of doing what the Church does. In such rare cases, in which even the rules of the Novus Ordo are not followed, it may be necessary to administer the sacrament of baptism conditionally in order to guarantee validity.
The bishops of the Society administer the sacrament of Confirmation conditionally when the faithful request it, that is, when they have a reasonable doubt as to the validity of the sacrament that they received, and this doubt cannot be resolved, as is usually the case. This is the case if oil other than the sacred chrism is used, or an oil other than olive oil (highly doubtful, since at variance with the divine institution of using olive oil) as is now permitted in the new rites, or if the signing with the sacred chrism and the imposition of the hand were not done at the same time, or if there is a doubt about the words used. Since there is a great variety in the words used, and since the traditional words "I sign thee with the sign of the cross and I confirm thee with the chrism of salvation, in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost" are never used, there is very frequently a doubt about the validity of the administration of this sacrament. This is the reason why the Society’s bishops do not hesitate to administer it conditionally when asked to do so. [Answered by Fr. Peter R. Scott]
 
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Paleoconservatarian

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JJB said:
For some reason, I suppose the word "sacrament" has been tied to the RCC in the minds of many. That's why it's good for us Protestants to know our own doctrine.

I wish I could say that it's just the word, but it represents a real difference in how the sacraments are viewed. For them, the "ordinances" really aren't sacraments. The "ordinances" are our work by which we show our faith, not God's work by which He confirms it. In my experience, evangelicals do not believe that grace is offered in the sacraments (yet they seem to have no problem saying that grace is conferred by altar calls and "quiet time").
 
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lmnop9876

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well, i would say that most "evangelicals" don't know what traditional reformation protestantism really teaches, and that many catholics and orthodox confuse modern "evangelicalism" with traditional protestantism.
traditional protestantism includes the Lutheran, Presbyterian, & Reformed Anglican Churches. these are mostly derived from Reformed national churches, not from small break-off sects formed well after the original Reformation. we do not reject tradition outright as many evangelicals seem to do, but accept it insofar as it is in accord with holy Scripture...
(this is from the Longer Catechism of the Russian Orthodox Church, but it is pretty much in line with the teaching of traditional Protestant Churches.)
http://tserkovnost.org/catechism_filaret/catechism_filaret-1.html
 
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JJB

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pjw, why would you look to an Orthodox cathechism for reformed theology?

The Belgic Confession is the oldest doctrinal standard within Christian Reformed Church. That is why I chose it in my OP. It was originally written in 1561 by Guido deBras, who was martyred in 1567 so that you and I can live out our faith outside of the RCC.
 
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JJB

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What do you think of the Belgic Confession's definition of the sacraments? Articles 33 and 34?
 
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Metanoia02

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Paleoconservatarian said:
I am in full agreement with it.

I realize you only believe in only two sacraments because you think that is all Scripture warrants. But in your understanding of sacraments do you believe the God has ordained certain elements of the temporal world to convey grace. Such and those of the Lords Supper and water in Baptism. There is also some spoken formula like that od a trinitarian baptism.

I guess the question is, outside of Scripture do you think God conveys his grace to those who are married with God as their witness. Do they receive special grace to live a out thier marriage commitments? Or would this be an ordinance that conveys no grace.
 
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Paleoconservatarian

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If I understand your question correctly, then yes, I believe God works through physical elements like ink and paper, preaching, water, bread and wine.


Here again I am not sure if I understand the question. I'm not sure what you mean by "outside of Scripture." However, I do believe that in this Christian vow and covenant, God may grant grace for the couple to live out their commitments. Yet I do not believe that marriage is a means of grace, that it is a sign and seal of the covenant of grace, and I do not believe that it is an act of God whereby He gives us Christ and His benefits for the nourishment of our faith. And these are what the sacraments are said to do in the Belgic Confession. In other words, it does not do the same thing that the Word and the sacraments do.

Belgic Confession, Art. XXXIII: "We believe, that our gracious God, on account of our weakness and infirmities hath ordained the sacraments for us, thereby to seal unto us his promises, and to be pledges of the good will and grace of God toward us, and also to nourish and strengthen our faith; which he hath joined to the Word of the gospel, the better to present to our senses, both that which he signifies to us by his Word, and that which he works inwardly in our hearts, thereby assuring and confirming in us the salvation which he imparts to us. For they are visible signs and seals of an inward and invisible thing, by means whereof God worketh in us by the power of the Holy Ghost. Therefore the signs are not in vain or insignificant, so as to deceive us. For Jesus Christ is the true object presented by them, without whom they would be of no moment. Moreover, we are satisfied with the number of sacraments which Christ our Lord hath instituted, which are two only, namely, the sacrament of baptism, and the holy supper of our Lord Jesus Christ."

(By the way, I took that from the 1561 Confession, not the 1619).
 
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Metanoia02

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Paleoconservatarian said:
Here again I am not sure if I understand the question. I'm not sure what you mean by "outside of Scripture."

What I mean is that for something to be sacramental (having the characteristics of a Sacrament), it must be explict from Scripture.

Other then that you have answered my question.
 
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