"Private Interpretation"

[RVincent]

On the one hand, there is a context that needs to be considered when studying the Bible. At the same time, I believe that prophecy may have a past, present, and future application, while still maintaining good context.

But what does "private interpretation" mean in 2 Pet. 1:20?

(2 Pet 1:20) Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.​

any private. Gr. idios = It's own.

Interpretation. Gr. epilusis. The verb epiluo is found in Mark 4:34 (expounded), and Acts 19:39 (determined).

This shows that the meaning is that prophecy is not self-originated by the speaker.

The following verse documents it:

(2 Pet 1:21) For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.​

All these verses are saying is that prophecy did not originate from the prophets, but from God through the prophets by the Holy Spirit.

If you read a prophetic passage, and feel that God is telling you something personally from it, I would not recommend sharing it with others, because they might whip out this verse and try to steal away your kernel of grain.

 

[duster1az]

RVincent writes:

But what does "private interpretation" mean in 2 Pet. 1:20?

Though there's not total agreement as to its meaning most expositors favor the interpretation which implies that no one Scripture bearing on a theme is to be considered apart from others on the same theme. A right interpretation of any doctrine depends on a gathering of all that the Bible presents on a given subject. This necessity is illustrated when the progress of revelation is recognized. The early disclosures concerning redemption by blood aren't to stand alone even though it was the only information God had revealed at the time. Today we know that the blood redemption was consumated by the death of Christ and this doctrine was expanded by the apostles. Therefore, an interpretation of redemption based on a private or isolated passage or Scripture could be misleading.

In Christ,
Tracey

 

[Jesus My Wisdom]

All these verses are saying is that prophecy did not originate from the prophets, but from God through the prophets by the Holy Spirit.

Yes, the context makes that quite obvious. Peter is not saying "a matter of one's own interepretation OF SCRIPTURE" but is referring to "one's own interpretation of TRUTH." Thus, these truths are from the Holy Spirit in the man moved by the Spirit, not the man himself.

The word here is not actually "interpretation" either. It is "loosing." See preceding verse and compare Mt 16:19.

The idea is that it is not the prophet who looses the truth but the Holy Spirit who moves the prophet to loose the truth.