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Previously Unconsidered Evidence for John 8:1-11

Nazaroo

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Semi-final


Finally, some meat. However, this begs the very question.
We've already conceded the main point, the two phrases aren't synonyms.
Is Davidson's suggestion more plausible? As you have shown here, the situation is more complex than that:

I freely grant that:

οχλος (oxlos) is used as a technical term for the crowd that 'hangs' with Jesus. But that is the very point. Jesus' gang of common people, made up by all accounts clearly of 'taxcollectors', 'drunks', prostitutes and other ne'er do wells (reformed or not) who found acceptance with him, are not the 'other' crowd:

λαος: (laos) The 'people' in another technical (and ethnocentric/racist) sense used by the Pharisees and John too. This group is essentially the group who follows the Temple Cult, that is the bulk of the Pharisee party/non-denominational population.

To put it in modern perspective, we might say that "oxlos" means "street-people", the 'untouchables', while "laos" means 'church-goers', the middle-class Jews, people with businesses and jobs and respect of men, who participate in both synagogue and temple worship, and go to the temple to hear status-quo teaching and political news.

Now the setting is CLEARLY the Temple, where not 'street-urchins' and the despised of Jerusalem society go, but where the large (according to Josephus) body of about one third of Jewish citizens and laypeople go to hear news and reassuring speeches about their self-righteousness. And one can assume here, like in so many other places in John that show a plain knowledge of the content of the synoptics, that John intends to recall the Sermon on the Mount (=Temple steps).

So 'laos' is the more likely choice than 'oxlos' here. Context context context.

Two quick points. Hate to be a stickler, but I didn't create Davidson's lame point, and so I didn't make any straw men.

two: Of course it is part of the original text. It has good internal and external evidence to support it. Internal evidence by the way is not 'more subjective' than external evidence. It is far more germaine and stronger evidence.
If you really think your "ordinary readers" are that stupid, then you probably have very few friends.
Again, disengenious. I don't think it is unreasonable to assume that most readers, even here, cannot read or write Greek. And it is a courtesy (one which you should practice more) to translate important points into English for accessibility. I don't call anyone stupid for not being bilingual, and your suggestion is demeaning to all.


So wait...you are translating επεμενον ερωτωντες as "rising up"?? ερωταω means "to ask." ...
. No. I was tired at the end of a long haul there, and a sentence and a half was deleted. I will edit the post.
My mistake there. Didn't read over the post.

And Raymond Brown, btw, is the BEST Johannine Scholar we've seen.
Well, he's a good scholar, but there are hundreds of great Johannine scholars in the world. Feel free to quote him.

Again, I think you misunderstand or misrepresent the nature of what is required to defend the passage.
With so much internal evidence from the Gospel and the pericope and external evidence in the judgements of the early fathers and church practice, in favour of John 8:1-11, it is up to those wanting to remove it to 'prove' a case.
All I claim to have done here is show that Davidson hasn't proven his case, and that's all that's really required for the Pericope to stay in John another thousand years.

Well, you are avoiding Scrivener, as do most modern textual critics who can't hold a candle to him, and you are ignoring Burgon because you want to punish him for not conforming to modern 'politically correct' standards at universities, where they teach you to politely obey your superiors at all costs.

I don't need Hill either to sit comfortably with a good case for the authenticity of John 8:1-11.

Interesting rebuttal.
 
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Nazaroo

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I have corrected post #34 to fix the text that was left out and caused a misleading result. My apologies to all who puzzled over that.

The essential correction is this:


epemenon erwtwnteV (*)

"they persisted questioning him" (They've gone to the trouble of trapping a woman in adultery, and brought her out at the most opportune moment, and I suppose they will just go home now, since Jesus isn't interested. NOT! Of course they persisted questioning him! What else could we expect, and John report?) :o
 
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Nazaroo

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In Post #55 I mentioned the Apostacy that resulted from Hort and the gang meat-stripping the New Testament. Some may feel that was exaggerated.
Here I'd like to quote a Christian writing in 1917:


This could have been written last week as easily as in 1917.
 
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Nazaroo

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By the way, to show that the critical apparatus are not very accurate regarding the Pericope de Adultera, I'd like to add this interesting bit from the Errata collections for Swanson's NT:

 
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Nazaroo

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Since many regard Robertson highly as an expert in Koine Greek, it is worthwhile to see how he handled the Pericope de Adultera. As will become obvious, he looks briefly at the textual (external) evidence, and adopts Hort's text and the common 'assured result' of textual criticism, that the passage is a late addition. On this basis, he begins to slag the verses, but gradually warms up to the actual content. Most bizarre behaviour from someone usually so balanced and cautious. Let's watch:

 
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Nazaroo

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And here's the second half of Robertson's commentary:

 
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Nazaroo

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And the lead-in to the next portion of the text:

 
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Nazaroo

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justified said:
Um, I think you made some errors.....

I cut and pasted from the online version of the book offered by the publisher.
I switched the Greek fonts to symbol, and corrected four incorrect references to 'Deuteronomy' which were meant to be 'John'.

Are there any others? (Other than Robertson's obvious errors, I mean.)
 
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Nazaroo

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justified said:
[/i][/font]

Hmm....

Okay I combed over it and found 6 more incorrect scriptural references...
I wonder if they did that so that if you want the 'good' copy you have to use a credit card. Hard to complain when it was free. I'd hate to have to type in and proof-read Robinson's massive volumes for low pay...

Anyway, now that we probably have what Robertson actually intended, I think we're good to go on this.
 
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Nazaroo

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What a confused, and confusing mess. The reader can only be dumbstruck after reading this near-pointless exposition. The famous medical joke is applicable here: "The operation was a success: however, the patient died." And indeed a similar cause is at work. Never has so much talent, so much technical expertise been applied so ineffectively, with so little result. Why? The patient, the subject matter, the story, the people, the crucial lesson, the critical doctrine, have all been forgotten. The catastrophe is so shockingly surprising and improbable, that the reader can only suspect its a forgery. Not the pericope, but Robertson's exposition!

How? What miss-step, what tragic misdirection, could have steered the great man off into the abyss so firmly and completely? Behold: He naively embraced a verdict so disturbing, so contrary to his own instinctive knowledge of Scripture, Gospel, and John, that his entire concentration and psyche was thrown off-kilter. No: worse than this, he is irrationally compelled to apply his great gift over and over again in a pathetic attempt to rationalize his own intellectual choice, which every intuitive bone in his body is shouting at him is a mistake.

He begins by reciting the two most infamous lies of 19th century textual criticism: (1) "oldest and best manuscripts", and (2) "some manuscripts place it in Luke". We have previously noted the first lie, namely that since the story is known to have been in copies of John two centuries earlier than the 'oldest' complete manuscript, the age of the manuscripts in question is near-irrelevant. We can also note in passing that one of the 'oldest' manuscripts, codex Bezae (IV,V cent.) actually has the verses. But the second lie is equally false and deliberately misleading: the manuscripts in question, a closely related family of mss called the 'Farrar group (fam 13)' is from so late a period (five centuries later!) that no textual critic considers its testimony anything more than an example of how amateur latecomers have mishandled the verses. Finally, Robertson limply appeals to the authority of "the Canterbury Version" and the Westcott/Hort text.

But Robertson's own conscience dogs him so badly here, that he begins misfiring into the dark almost from the starting gate:

(7:53) '...a rather pointless contrast to Jesus'. (!) This strange distain immediately strikes the reader as so uncharacteristic of Robertson, and so inappropriate to the handling of 'real scripture' that an alarm bell must go off: at least the reader is now awake and cued that something is amiss beyond Robertson's reassurance that it is "probably a true story"!

(8:1) '...though it seems pointless (Dods)' - ('that is, it was Dods' idea, not mine!') now the source of the negative energy is guiltily revealed, to further excuse the out-of-character remarks.

(8:2) 'not in John', with the counter-examples: but no actual light at all on the most remarkable word in the pericope! What is going on?
'If the paragraph is genuine, ...If not genuine...': more irrelevancies, before he is forced finally to look at words and phrases, - the whole reason for the current work.

(8:3) 'John does not mention "scribes"'. More concern for finding every thread that might support rejection, no matter how weak and implausibly stretched, before getting down to business.

(8:4) 'Not in John.' Another quick shot in the middle of the exposition, which only distracts.

(8:5-6) Finally a rest from the tedious attack, as Robertson himself is distracted by the content (!) of the passage.

(8:7) 'the verb does not occur in John', but no enlightenment given to the reader as to when it might or might not be appropriate.

(8:8) 'Not genuine, only in D' i.e., the reading is "only found" in the oldest manuscript containing the passage!

(8:9) Again a reference (plea?) to his dependancy upon '(Dods)', even for the simple interpretation of these verses.

(8:10-11) The attack is exhausted, since it was half-heartedly begun. Robertson has given up collecting or reciting 'evidence' for inauthenticity.

His strained apologetic has affected his 'brilliant' exposition so badly, he must have been aware of it himself.
After so many 'aorist active indicative' this, and 'inchoative imperfect' that, the reader is left only bewildered, with all the profound drama and power of the pericope drained away: as if one had readied a swimming pool for the coming winter.

Bad choices are known by their bad consequences. The fruits here are dried and tasteless, and lack any spiritual nutritional value. It appears that even the 'greatest' talents can trip over a stone and break themselves upon it, once they've decided to run into it head-first on bad advice.

One doesn't know whether to laugh or just cry, seeing this tragecomedy embedded in one of the best Greek grammatical commentaries of the New Testament ever penned. And what a senseless waste of time and energy, writing it, reading it, refuting it.

But what is the real tragedy here? That thousands of readers may wander away, never even glancing at the passage again, and never discovering the real gold so easily available, the true manna from heaven being handed out to thousands who merely read the Pericope in its simplicity?
 
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Nazaroo

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Is this too harsh a judgment? What has Robertson offered us for all his knowledge and skill? Something old, something borrowed: a mere sampling of stale observations offered before by others. A rehash of old 'objections' to the passage on flimsy grounds of 'vocabulary'. Not even an acknowledgement of the weaknesses of the approach: just a sort of drifting off. No insight, no discovery, nothing that couldn't have been had from any local preacher's sermon.

A Filmmaker's Dream! Think of it! Here is story so packed with drama, emotion, plot, characterization, mystery, heroism, redemption, that even the most inept and innaccurate portrayer of any 'historical Jesus' simply can't afford to leave it out. Every film of Christ ever made, has made more of this story than five similar-sized portions of the gospels. It would be inconceivable to document a 'Life of Christ' without it, unless the goal was, as in the comedy 'the Producers', bankruptcy! Surely if ever someone made claims to be a commentator, they could make an inspiring, exciting commentary on this of all passages. Robertson's failure is as dramatic as the passage!

Even the most uneducated bumpkin of a hockey commentator knows this much! The least Roberston could have said concerning Jesus here was, "He shoots!...He scores!"

Now let us merely mention by way of foreshadow, what Robertson has inexplicably left out. The one feature of the passage that would have astounded all readers, both naive and experienced. The one feature of the passage that if anyone could have unearthed, it should have been Robertson, with his vast specialist knowledge.

And simultaneously the most remarkable piece of internal evidence for authenticity one could hope for, the most astounding and to all intents and purposes 'impossible to forge' signature of John the Evangelist, has been entirely missed. But I will hold back what it is, until I come to comment on the pericope myself.

Now, I only want to report my sympathy and great sadness at what Robertson has done to himself. It shines at me like a pillar of salt next to Lot. For unlike my distant and weak connection to Mr. Davidson, I empathize strongly with Robertson, who for the main part has dedicated his life to illuminating scripture. There is the tragedy.

For the precious stone, that should have been lovingly polished, and set in the golden crown Robertson made for himself in his commentary on John, he has instead stomped on and trampled. I am scandalized and horror-struck. It is as though I have just by happenstance overheard God command Moses to speak lovingly to the Rock, and then immediately have witnessed Moses turn around and beat on it with his rod. My hand shakes as I put it to my mouth in shock.

Or imagine David, instead of following the king's commands to go out and meet Goliath in the field, consults his halfwit brother who secretly envies and despises him, and who sends him to the wrong battlefield, where David awaits an opponent who never arrives, while all Israel is humiliated a mere stone's throw away in the next valley over.

The earlier the misstep, the greater the error in the destination.
See what a catastrophe starting out on the wrong foot brings.
 
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Nazaroo

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The reader of these posts surely has the right to ask,


This are great questions that need to be answered:

Let me begin with an exactly parallel case, in a closely related field, that of the question of Hebrew/Aramaic gospel originals, and the study of Hebraisms, Aramaisms, and translational Greek in the New Testament itself. Maurice Casey has done an immaculate job of documenting the history of this field unto the present day, in his recent scholarly tome, Aramaic Sources of Mark's Gospel (Cambridge University Press 1998) Society for NT Studies Monograph Series 102. This solid piece of modern scholarship is the first to take into account the full evidence of the Dead Sea Scrolls on a scientific basis, and is a model for such studies. Let's listen to Casey now:

 
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Nazaroo

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But Maurice has hardly scratched the surface yet:


We can take away three important points both from the general discussion and the specific examples given by Casey:

(1) The opinion changed drastically over the last two hundred years, flipping back and forth and invalidating previous work as new discoveries came to light.

(2) The methodology was only very slowly analyzed and even more slowly were solutions proposed to remove the subjectivity and error of the arguments. Many problems remain to this day.

(3) Specifically, at least a certain large group of scholars became painfully aware that dealing with New Testament variants or even texts on an isolated 'word by word' approach was hopelessly myopic.

The bottom line is that the whole community of Aramaic NT scholars have been willing to grow up for a long time, and admit that eclectic 'one word/variant at a time' techniques are subjective garbage.

While it seems almost the entire community of Greek NT scholarship is still unwilling to let go of the 'assured results' of the 19th century and start again with modern wholistic techniques that have a lot more credibility.
 
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Nazaroo

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But now let us look at A. T. Robertson's results, as skimpy as they are:

One would think that after nearly a hundred years, and thousands of lexical and syntactical advances in knowledge, and hundreds of Johannine studies, that Robertson, the Greek linguist par excellence would be able to triple the number of instances of 'non-Johannine' vocabulary and syntax, thus nailing down forever the question of the authenticity of the Pericope de Adultera.

But what has happened? Robertson has barely been able to amass a tenth of Davidson's count, with examples he feels are even defensible!

From the most unlikely quarter, my own evaluation of Davidson's work has been amply vindicated. Robertson is afraid to advance practically any of Davidson's case, although he can hardly be unfamiliar with it, because he is more painfully aware of its worthlessness than any other living expert of his time.

And is Robertson's 'lean and mean' case any better or more convincing? Hardly. In fact he hasn't even half-heartedly attempted an argument, because he hasn't found an honest case worth presenting. Of his mere seven instances, this is what we have:


(1) 7:53 - They went (eporeuqhsan). First aorist passive indicative of poreuomai used as a deponent verb without passive idea. In this context the verb has to refer to the Sanhedrin with a rather pointless contrast to Jesus.

But is it a 'non-Johannine' stylism? No one knows. Only Robertson (Dods?) thinks it a 'rather pointless contrast'. But this depends entirely upon one's sympathy with 'Son of Man who has no place to rest His head', and the wealthy Sanhedrin living in castles. Pointless to a rich man perhaps. To John and the average reader? Isn't that up to us?


(2) 8:1 - But Jesus went (IhsouV de eporeuqh). Same deponent use of poreuomai as in Jn 7:53 and in contrast to the Sanhedrin's conduct, though it seems "pointless" (Dods).
The other half of what is really the same variant and question, posed by the connected clauses. A.T. Robertson's "Magnificent Seven" have now become six.

(3) 8:2 - Early in the morning (orqrou). Genitive of time, orqroV meaning daybreak, old word, not in John, though in Luke 24:1; Acts 5:21. John uses prwi (Jn 18:28, 20:1, 21:4)
What can Robertson mean by "old word" here, when the only examples he can muster are from Luke, one of the latest contemporary writings and closest in time to John's Gospel? The word is rare, but of course, how often do you get to say 'dawn' in ordinary conversation? The 'book' of John is after all only a 30 page pamphlet! Obviously Luke didn't consider it 'old', and he was the most prolific and skilled NT writer we know of. His Johannine 'counter-examples' haven't a whole lot of weight either, since John cannot just invent the time of all the events he describes.


"If the paragraph is genuine, the time is the next day after the eighth and last day of the feast. If not genuine, there is no way of telling the time of this apparently true incident."
This doesn't even make any sense, since the word 'dawn' is not even in serious dispute as a textual variant. Perhaps Robertson means 'date' rather than 'time'.



(4) 8:3 - The scribes and the Pharisees (oi grammateiV kai oi Parisaioi). John does not mention "scribes," though this combination (note two articles) is common enough in the Synoptics (Luke 5:30; Luke 6:7, etc.).
Although John is quite clever at hiding his dependancy upon the Synoptics, no one in this century doubts John's familiarity with at least Luke and Mark. It is so common a phrase in all the Synoptics that it is hardly surprising that John might occasionally use it, possibly even on purpose to draw our attention to or recall Synoptic parallels. John was clearly written in the assumption, or even as almost a prerequisite, that the reader has already read a Synoptic Gospel.


(5) 8:4 - In adultery (moiceuomenh). Present passive participle of moiceuw, "herself suffering adultery" (Matthew 5:32). Used of married people. Not in John.
Now Robertson appears to be firing blanks. The word 'adultery' is not elsewhere in John, because there is no context for it. Supposing the incident is authentic, and John wishes to record it, what other word could he possibly use? Must we now assume John was unfamiliar with the Ten Commandments?

(6) 8:7 - When they continued asking (wV epemenon erwtwnteV). Imperfect active indicative of epimenw (waiting in addition or still, epi, old verb) with supplementary active participle of erwtaw, to question. See same construction in Acts 12:16 The verb epimenw does not occur in John.
(Maybe its me, but since we know John read or at least knew about Luke/Acts, it seems foolish to pretend that the most skilled poet in the New Testament couldn't, or was unlikely to construct this simple phrase! Robertson can't possibly be suggesting John didn't know the verb.)

(7) 8:8 - With his finger (twi daktulwi). Not genuine, only in D and Western class.


We can't really count this as an instance, because here Robertson is protesting a rare and rather poorly supported variant of an abberant form of the text. It still leaves us stuck with the rest of the pericope.
(8) 8:10 - Did no man condemn thee? (oudeiV se katekrinen;). First aorist active indicative of katakrinw, old and common verb to give judgment against (down on) one, but not in John.




Again, disengenious. An incredibly common word in the context of the New Testament: If anything, it is remarkable that it doesn't show up elsewhere in John, not that it actually does show up here in this obvious context. That is, we are asking the wrong question again with this variant. No one in their right mind could suggest the word 'condemn' was not in John's vocabulary. Note that the Johannine letters have not been consulted either, although clearly related.


Can this possibly be the saddest case against the Pericope de Adultera ever half-heartedly compiled?


 
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Nazaroo

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Summary:

All that can survive a reasonably conservative examination from Robertson's performance is one example: orqrou

The only credible word we can latch onto as unusual and peculiar in the Pericope de Adultera is 'dawn'.

How ironic. What could it mean?

"What does it say, Gandalf?"

" 'speak, friend, and enter!' "
 
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Nazaroo

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But someone PMs me to say,

Good God, Nazaroo,
Picking on these ancient naives and mavericks: who quit the debate long ago!
It's like shooting ducks in a barrel! I can't bear to watch anymore!
Please, take apart some more 'modern' moderns.

And point taken.

My purpose here wasn't to set up straw-men from the past, but to give the viewer an introduction to the history of the criticism of these verses, and some perspective from which to judge the 'assured results' of 'modern' criticism.

For it should appear now to all, that we don't even have '400 years of unanimous assessment' of the pericope, but rather a heterogenous and motley cluster of sporadic assaults, of very uneven character and quality.

Even as late as 1900 Burgon was able to riffle off almost a dozen expert textual critics from the continent who were at least neutral, if not in favour of the authenticity of the Pericope de Adultera: such greats as Mill, Matthaei, Alder, Scholz, and Vercollone, to name a few.

Most critics in the past have preferred to shuffle their papers embarrassingly, and briefly mumble a few quotes from their predecessors, hoping to avoid confrontations, just in case the pandora's box is inadvertantly opened again by some over-curious student.

What we may have, examining the more recent crop of 'assured scholarship' is perhaps a decade or two (if we're lucky) of a more level-headed and detached analysis, ending in a much less assertive set of 'claims' regarding authenticity. At least we can hope for such an approach, and hope to find it on a more scientific footing.

I will turn to these more recent excursions into the wonderland of 'Oz-thenticity' shortly.
 
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Nazaroo

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Well, I have found something: After tediously going through hundreds of internet links, and finding page after page that simply quotes Metzger's apologetic but at least brief summary in defence of the UBS Greek text, I have actually found something purporting to be newly researched statement:


First let me congradulate Ms. Wagner on a first rate summary of the modern position. She has admirably covered the basic points, and written in a conservative, neutral style, using the correct phraseology, and approved by University faculty everywhere.

If I were her professor, I should no doubt give her a 90% mark and an encouraging word or two of praise concerning her non-controversial presentation of the problem. I could not assign 100% however, for the reason that a couple of small details are lacking from the report: accuracy and truth.

Although an excellent piece for the purpose of securing the required mark in the university course, this object, like so many thousands of others, needs to be placed quietly in the shredder once the diploma is awarded. The fact is, the contents are exactly what is commonly produced on the spot by orangutans in captivity, for the purpose of flinging at the plexiglass to shock and amuse the spectators on the other side.
 
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Nazaroo

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Let's just look a bit more closely at exactly how the web is spun:







Has 'Textual Criticism' been very useful in determining ancient interpolations?

99.9% of all simple interpolations are between one and ten words in size. Certainly the ordinary rules of textual criticism applied appropriately should be able to help in sorting explanatory glosses or over-zealous corrections from the original text. However, there IS no rule or 'canon' of textual criticism that can be appropriately applied to the problem stemming from inclusion/exclusion of the Pericope de Adultera. That is absurd. This case must be treated thoughtfully and in great depth.

Textual Criticism has certainly been useful to those opposed to orthodox Christianity. It provides 'plausible arguments' for accepting minority readings or unusual readings and offers an 'alternate New Testament'. But since this is the very point at issue, the question is being begged.

But regardless, all this has no relevance to the case of the Pericope de Adultera, which the author has admitted already is a unique case.


Can the Pericope De Adultera be classed as or compared to an 'interpolation'?

Not in a thousand years could any honest investigator convince himself that the Pericope is some kind of simple 'interpolation'. It is not just in a class by itself, it is the only possible instance of twelve whole verses being 'added' to a gospel. And the proposal is so fantastic that it demands a thorough investigation, BEFORE 'extreme suspicion' is branded upon the backside of a possible part of the Holy Word of God, as though it were a cow to be earmarked and quaranteened from rest of the herd.







"Elsewhere in John's Gospel"?

What can this mean? Does she also want to count a position at the end of the Gospel? It is placed there occasionally by scribes who noticed it missing in the text. But no one, not even the scribes putting it there could possibly imagine that is where it is supposed to be. That would obviously be best interpreted as a concern by some later scribe that the verses might be lost.

As for the text appearing somewhere else actually in John, only one extremely late manuscript places it incorrectly in John (from memory?). We are told that "In MSS 225 the pericope stands after John 7:36.". That is, one late manuscript stands against the 5,000+ others, plus versions and fathers. Not even a textual note or a mention by an early father even hints that the reading of manuscript 225 even existed as an error before the 10th century.

This was probably the kind of thing that happens when a scribe exits to relieve himself, and the wind blows a page over, causing him to copy a portion from the wrong part of an exemplar (master copy). How can the toilet habits of a 12th century copyist be of any use to us whatsoever?

Oh, and yes, the closely related handful of late manuscripts (by direct copying) called the Ferrar Group try to place it in Luke (to save it from being deleted?). But since they are all made from the same copy they stand again as one lone, late witness against all the rest of the manuscript base, including those who mark the passage doubtful, leave it out with diacritical marks, or include it in the margin with rejection notes.

That is, two idiots in the latter days clumsily inserted the passage in the wrong place; but no textual critic in 400 years of studying the problem has even considered these two cases as being anything but preposterous. Not a single critic considers either of these two cases as significant in any way, or having a bearing on either the position or the authenticity of the passage.


That is, these two irrelevant anachronistic anomalies are just a smoke-screen, which vanishes with the slightest movement.



"The places where it is found is [sic] so widely variant that it is very unique "

Indeed. If it actually were found in widely variant places that would make it unique. Since it is not, this cannot be the reason that this textual problem is 'unique'.
 
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