I don’t see anywhere In the OP that it says the apostles COULD have believed Christ’s coming was literally soon, that’s literally why I asked the question. ONE of His arguments was that preterism misrepresents scripture by using the literal definitions of near, soon, and quickly when they should, instead, be understood from God’s time.
I agree with that argument. When you look at 1 Peter 4:7, for example, I believe Peter was talking from God's perspective just like he did in 2 Peter 3:8-12. From God's perspective, the coming of Christ and the end of all things is always near since no amount of time makes any difference to Him. What is near to Him can seem like a long time to us, which is what Peter pointed out in 2 Peter 3:8-9.
As for Your argument on using 2 peter 3 , it makes zero sense.
It makes complete sense to me. We think so differently that very little of what you believe makes any sense to me and vice versa. So be it. Not much we can do about that.
The context of 2 peter 3 is the addressing of the last days scoffers who are scoffing “where is coming?”. Peter, in his last epistle, had taught the end of all things had drawn near, so of course scoffers would be scoffing “where is his coming?”.
Right, because, like you, they didn't understand that he was speaking from God's perspective of time, not man's. Which is why Peter said what he did in 2 Peter 3:8-9. It seems that from your perspective Peter said what he did in 2 Peter 3:8-9 for no reason at all. Yet, I would think you believe he said it for a reason. So, what do you think that reason is?
In verse 9, for example, do you think Peter pointed out that the Lord is not slow in keeping His promise because He was going to be coming literally soon? Peter said the reason that the Lord would come in His timing is because of His desire for everyone to repent, which means He wants to give everyone enough time to repent, as He sees fit. Is that no longer true? Does 2 Peter 3:9 no longer apply today? Did it only apply up until 70 AD?
If Peter taught that Christs coming was possibly thousands of years away, then it makes zero sense for scoffers to scoff “where is his coming”,
You're not getting it. The scoffers, like you (not saying you're a scoffer, but just saying you are mistaken about the timing like they were/are), didn't understand that His coming was not necessarily going to be literally soon. Can't you see that Peter was saying they were mistaken in their perspective (again, see 2 Peter 3:8-9)? Why are you acting as if the scoffers had the correct perspective of the timing of Christ's second coming? They didn't. They didn't know anything. That's why Peter felt the need to correct that mistaken notion by saying what he did in 2 Peter 3:8-9.
and it makes zero sense for Peter to exhort his audience to “hasten” and “anticipate”.
Why not? If it could potentially happen in the lifetimes of his readers (his readers include you and me, by the way), then why wouldn't anyone reading his message want to heed his words? Do you think people should only "hasten" and "anticipate" something if it's guaranteed to happen in their lifetimes? No one should "hasten" and "anticipate" if something can happen in their lifetimes, but not for certain? Well, let me tell you something. I don't know when Jesus is coming, but I believe it could happen in my lifetime. But, even though He may not come in my lifetime I'm still hastening and highly anticipating it. It's sad that preterists like yourself are not.
His argument for God being slow, in human time, but not God’s time due to his eternal nature, was to comfort the suffering church, as they “hasten” and “anticipate” God’s promises.
Let's look at the text itself to see if it supports your claim.
2 Peter 3:8 But do not forget this one thing, dear friends: With the Lord a day is like a thousand years, and a thousand years are like a day. 9
The Lord is not slow in keeping his promise, as some understand slowness. Instead he is patient with you, not wanting anyone to perish, but everyone to come to repentance.
I don't see anything here about comforting the suffering church. Instead, I see a description that the Lord is taking His time to keep His promise because of his desire to give people time to repent so that they don't perish. Did the Lord stop wanting to give people time to repent after 70 AD or does this passage still apply today? I believe it clearly still applies today. The Lord is holding off on destroying the earth (as Peter proceeded to talk about after that passage) because of His desire to give people as much time as He sees fit to repent first.