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Jesus was repeating Himself to drive the message home. But for two different events,
Christ warend His disciples that THEY would see it in their lifetimes. Yes.
What does Math have to do with it?If you think only 2 million Jews dying is worse than 6 million Jews dying, your math is slightly off. .
The end will not come until the Gospel of the Kingdom is preached unto all nations. So Christ did not have 70 AD in mind when He spoke these words to His disciples.
Matthew 24:14 (KJV) And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.
If it's two different events, separated by thousands of years, why does Jesus include the destruction of the then standing temple they were looking at in both of them?
I guess Paul, and the Holy Spirit who inspired him, didn't get that memo:
Colossians 1:5-6 because of the hope which is laid up for you in heaven, of which you heard before in the word of the truth of the gospel, 6 which has come to you, as it has also in all the world, and is bringing forth fruit, as it is also among you since the day you heard and knew the grace of God in truth;
Colossians 1:23 if indeed you continue in the faith, grounded and steadfast, and are not moved away from the hope of the gospel which you heard, which was preached to every creature under heaven, of which I, Paul, became a minister.
Romans 1:8 First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for you all, that your faith is spoken of throughout the whole world.
Romans 16:25-26 Now to Him who is able to establish you according to my gospel and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery kept secret since the world began 26 but now has been made manifest, and by the prophetic Scriptures has been made known to all nations, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, for obedience to the faith;
Now, either you are correct, that this didn't happen in the 1st century, or Paul and the HS are correct that it did.
My Money is on Paul and the Holy Spirit.
Have you ever considered that Paul is using this specific terminology to prove Gentiles too have heard the Gospel? This is why Paul is very inclusively including Gentiles by saying "all nations", "the whole world" and "every creature under heaven". IOW salvation is no longer limited to one nation, the Jews, but is, since Christ going to every nation. The proclamation of the Gospel to Gentiles too indeed began to be sent unto all the nations of the whole world through the first century disciples. But the first century disciples were only the beginning of this prophesy, because many nations of the earth didn't come to exist until long after the first century disciples died. Yet the Gospel is still going out unto Gentiles throughout the whole world, proving great tribulation the disciples of Christ was not limited to first century Jewish disciples for Christ.
Jesus' specific command of "the gospel must be preached to all nations & every creature" was plainly fulfilled before the end of Paul's ministry. Paul even specifically says the fulfillment he mentions is the fulfillment of that very command of Jesus (Romans 15:26)
You are the one comparing Scripture. That is your point. You claim Luke 21 has Jesus talking on the Mount of Olives. I asked where. There is literally no indication in that chapter that Jesus did not say the same things at the temple, that He later repeated to the disciples in private. But what is different is that at the temple He said to flee when they, at the temple, saw armies approaching. But in private, Jesus mentioned the AoD, and not the armies.Since when does absense of evidence = evidence of absense?
Except for the billions of humans born since Paul died. They did not go through time over the last 1900 years to today.Jesus' specific command of "the gospel must be preached to all nations & every creature" was plainly fulfilled before the end of Paul's ministry. Paul even specifically says the fulfillment he mentions is the fulfillment of that very command of Jesus (Romans 15:26)
The temple was not destroyed in 66AD when they fled from the approaching armies. That was a separate event from 70AD. 70AD was when the temple was destroyed. Both separate events are separate from the Second Coming, which has not happened yet.If it's two different events, separated by thousands of years, why does Jesus include the destruction of the then standing temple they were looking at in both of them?
When the alter call at your church is a recorded message saying to cut your head off, let me know if that is worse than eating your own flesh and blood.What does Math have to do with it?
If 50 people are Killed instantly in an explosion, and 5 People are slowly tortured to death over 2 weeks, which group suffered "greater tribulation", the 50 or the 5?
Contrary to your assertion, body count does not equal greatness of trubulation suffered.
Jewish women slew, cooked and ate their own babies, the tribulation was so bad in the Roman Jewish War. How much tribulation would you have to suffer before you could bring yourself to slaughter, cook and eat your own baby Tim?
I know of no account showing that the tribulation was so bad that Jewish women killed, cooked and ate their own babies in WWII, do you?
What does the birth of Jesus have to do with the Second Coming? Yes Jesus was born. Do you deny that fact?@Timtofly I would encourage you to Demonstrate how Matthew 1:18-25 and Luke 1:2-18 are Parallel accounts of the Birth of Christ.
Show us the language in each of those passages that demonstrates they harmonize and are speaking of the same events.
What does the birth of Jesus have to do with the Second Coming? Yes Jesus was born. Do you deny that fact?
Jesus warned those at the temple of destruction of the temple.The subject of both passages, even though they contain different details, is the birth of Christ. They are parallel.
Likewise, in Matthew 24 and Luke 21 the subject is the destruction of the temple even though they contain different details. They too are parallel.
Yes the temple was destroyed, on time, as prophesied in Matt, Luke and Mark.
Do you to deny that fact?
And when the church in private asked Jesus when the temple would be destroyed, Is it your position that he never answered that question to them then?Jesus warned those at the temple of destruction of the temple.
Jesus warned the church in private of the AoD at the Second Coming. Both events made it into the Gospels.
I completely disagree. What is this based on?A reader who reads both Matthew and Revelation should know that the AoD is set up by Satan and not an event in 70AD.
How are you coming to this conclusion?Luke 21 was still Jesus talking at the temple to a vast audience.
Where are you getting this from?Many that day remembered Jesus' words. They would not have heard nor remembered what was said in private to the disciples on the mount of Olives camp site they spent the night at. This in the temple and on the mount happened Sunday, Monday, and Tuesday morning, several days, so there was a lot more said both places than what was written down.
Just because Luke didn't spell it out as to what was said when doesn't mean that Jesus had to still be at the temple when He said what is recorded after Luke 21:6. A missing detail does not mean that it's a completely different discourse. Obviously, Mark 13 doesn't have all the same details as Matthew 24, but you have no trouble discerning that Mark 13 is the same Olivet Discourse as Matthew 24."And in the day time he was teaching in the temple; and at night he went out, and abode in the mount that is called the mount of Olives. And all the people came early in the morning to him in the temple, for to hear him."
Seems Luke never even mentioned what was said on the mount of Olives, because he never separated what was said at the temple, with what was later said on the mount of Olives. Not even the same questions were asked in Luke's gospel.
Exactly. There are also some details given in Matthew 24 that aren't found in Mark 13, but you don't see him concluding that Mark 13 and Matthew 24 are different discourses like he does with Matthew 24 and Luke 21. It's clear to me that doctrinal bias is the reason that he thinks that Matthew 24 and Luke 21 are not the same discourse.Since when does absense of evidence = evidence of absense?
I reject 1) and 2). That leaves option 3) being the best and only option.
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