BrotherSteve said:
This sounds like you are saying that we at least have to choose to sin so that we can "logically be held accountable..." If that is true then it also follows that we would also have to choose to accept God's gift of salvation. Then it is not predestination.
Well, the obvious flaw in your conclusion is that salvation is not an offer that is simply extended to us for us to decide whether to "accept." Salvation is something done
to man for the glory of the Godhead.
This seems contrary to your previous point. But I would agree that we don't "choose" to be saved in the most literal sense. Salvation is something that is given to us - a gift - you can't choose to get a gift. However, you can choose to accept it or not.
This is a common, and completely insufficient, analogy that is employed by many on this MB. While salvation is truly a "gift" in the sense that we did nothing to deserve it, that is where the analogy must end. Think of a man who was in a fatal accident. He has drowned and has died. Someone comes along and pulls him from the water, with no assistance from the deceased, and revives him, giving him life once again. Was the work of the rescuer a "gift?" Certainly. Can the person who now lives "choose to not accept the gift?" As you can see, that makes no sense. The biblical analogy to the work of regeneration is that of Lazarus. Did Lazarus help Christ give him life? Certainly not. Did Christ ask Lazarus whether he'd be willing to be returned to life? Clearly not. Did Lazarus respond to Christ's command to live? Of course. He responded as those who have been given life respond...he lived.
God keeps me from sinning in many ways - there are times in my life when I get caught up in the world and am surrounded by temptation - during these times God has often reminded me of scripture or sent another Christian to stand with me so that I am capable of resisting the temptatino. Othertimes, I sin, and God allows it.
The point is that you acknowledge that God, by the dispensation of His grace (in whatever form that is manifested), brings His will to pass. Tell me, as sin is a treasonous act against God, and abominable in His holy eyes, why would God "allow" you to sin when, according to you, He can clearly keep you from doing so?
I am not trying to say that I can override God's will. But there is nothing that keeps God from allowing me to make my own choices.
Nor am I contending that man
doesn't make his own choices. In fact, up to this point I've acknowledged that man
must make his own choices. Where you and I seem to disagree is that I do not purport that "being saved" is a choice man makes. Man is the passive recipient of the work of Christ to bring life to His people. Once given life, man lives for the light just as he lived for the darkness when he was dead in his trespasses and sins. Of course, the duality of our nature creates a spiritual tension as our regenerate spirit wars against our sinful flesh but it is this very battle that produces in us Christian character and strengthens our faith in God for deliverance. It is because of our daily struggle that we acknowledge our weakness and look with the Apostle Paul to the only One who can truly deliver us:
Romans 7:23-25
But I see another law in my members, warring against the law of my mind, and bringing me into captivity to the law of sin which is in my members. O wretched man that I am! Who will deliver me from this body of death? I thank Godthrough Jesus Christ our Lord!
He can be there for me and still allow me to not rely on Him. This doesn't take anything away from God's sovereignty.
I am well aware that the Lord purposes our sanctification through our failures as well as our successes. I do not deny this. What I deny is that the "choice to be saved" is one man makes. Salvation is of God and, as such, something done
to us, not
with us.
Well, we do have scriptural examples where God has changed his mind.
No you don't. Such a thing is impossible. At best, what you can proffer are examples of anthropomorphic revelation, i.e., God repented, Jesus wept, etc. These are not indicative of mutability on the part of an immutable God. Within God there is
never a shade of turning:
Malachi 3:6
For I am the LORD,
I do not change;
James 1:17
Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above, and comes down from the Father of lights, with whom
there is no variation or shadow of turning.
Take the events of Hezikiah's life. He was told by a prophet of God that he would die. Then Hezekiah cried out to God and the prophet came back and told Hezekiah that God would allow him to live 15 more years. (Read 2 Kings 20:1-4). However, because Hezekiah continued to live his son Manaseh was born and "1 Manasseh was twelve years old when he became king, and he reigned in Jerusalem fifty-five years. His mother's name was Hephzibah. 2 He did evil in the eyes of the LORD, following the detestable practices of the nations the LORD had driven out before the Israelites." ( 2 Kings 21:1-2 NIV).
I believe that God knew that Hezekiah would cry out to him and God knew He would show mercy on Hezekiah. I also believe that God knew this wouldn't be the best choice for Hezekiah to make because during the 15 years he lived his son would be born and his son was evil in the sight of the Lord.
That event does not show that God changed His mind about anything. It is given that we may understand our reliance upon God. The birth of Manasseh was according to God's ordained plan.
Does this mean God is not Sovereign? No. But it does show that God lets us do things he knows are not good for us to do.
And why would He allow us to choose what
we think is "good" if it is contrary to what is
actually good for us?
In the same way he allows people to choose to accept (or not to accept) his gift of salvation.
God does not ask men do they want to be saved. This is a falsehood that is never purported in the Gospel. God saves those He has elected unto salvation, gives them His Spirit, and, in doing so, makes them His children and gives them a desire to serve and obey Him in love.
Then let's not call it "free will" but still understand that God allows us to make choices that he knows are not best for us. Really, is it ever best for man to sin.
While God does not condone sin He has purposed even our sin for His glory. The Word tells us that that
all things work to the good of those who love God and are called according to
His purpose. Tell me, have you ever exhibited unrighteous anger toward someone and then been humbled and sought their forgiveness? Can you look at your sin of unrighteousness and acknowledge that, while surely a sin, it sanctifies you and conforms you to the image of God? Does it not show you your weakness, your need for God's grace, your reliance upon Him above all things? Does it not equip you to deal with others who exhibit the same behavior, knowing that what they are experiencing is all too common to our flesh and, in compassion, help you to help them overcome, as we are commanded to do for our brothers and sisters:
Galatians 6:1
Brethren, if a man is overtaken in any trespass, you who are spiritual restore such a one in a spirit of gentleness, considering yourself lest you also be tempted.
When Eve ate of the fruit of the tree of knowledge of good and evil do you really think this is what God thought was best for Adam and Eve?
Best in what sense? It was a violation against the preceptive will of God so, obviously, it is sinful and, therefore, not "good" for them. However, it ushered in the Fall of man, the need for a Savior, the resurrection of God's people, the glory of the Godhead, etc. Is that "good?" Do we not have a greater and fuller understanding and appreciation for Christ now that He stands as both our Savior and our Lord?
If it is what was best, why did God forbid them from doing it?
I have no clue why God forbid them to eat of the tree of knowledge, nor do I think the Bible reveals as much.
Sounds like a trick question. Man is by wicked by nature, no matter how good we are we will still be sinners who need a savior. We are never not wicked, but we are justified by the blood of Christ.
And my subtitle under my screen name says just that, i.e.,
Simul iustus et peccator, at the same time (simultaneously), just and sinner. What I'm asking is, when you act in obedience, in faith, what is it that causes you to do so? Earlier you stated, "God keeps me from sinning in many ways." How does He do this? Surely there is more to it than being "reminded of a Scripture" or having the company of a fellow Christian, yes?
It may be true that the word translated as "world" has many different meanings. However, in this instance there is not sufficient evidence to say that it does not mean all people.
According to whom? Strong's defines the word as it is used in John 3:16 as "believers
only":
8) any aggregate or general collection of particulars of any sort
a) the Gentiles as contrasted to the Jews (Rom. 11:12 etc)
b) of believers only,
John 1:29;
3:16; 3:17; 6:33; 12:47 1 Cor. 4:9; 2 Cor. 5:19
Not to mention, applying a universal connotation to the word
kosmos makes the verse nonsensical:
John 3:16
For God so loved
all people without exception that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him
(this being a clearly limited group of people) should not perish but have everlasting life.
*bolded text is my addition
So, according to you, John 3:16 says that God loves everyone so much that He's going to save some of them? Additionally, that means that John 3:17 must read thusly:
For God did not send His Son into
all people without exception to condemn
all people without exception, but that
all people without exception through Him might be saved.
Now, as ridiculous as that my sound (it surely does to me), it means that Christ, this would be the
sovereign God we've been speaking of, came with the express
intent of saving
all people without exception. Does that happen? If not, then Christ failed to accomplish what He intended to accomplish. He failed to accomplish the purpose for which He was sent. That sit right with you? Please do not belabor this by telling me that Christ intended to make salvation
possible for all people but it is their choice to be saved that actualizes His work on their behalf. The verse clearly states that the Father sent the Son to save people. According to you, the group of people He purposed to save was
all people without exception. Couple that with the fact that we are explicitly told that God accomplishes
all that He purposes and
nothing can stop Him, we must either believe that something does stop Him or that
kosmos, at least in John 3:16,17, doesn't mean
all people without exception.
I look forward to your response.
God bless