Preaching to Spirits?

[adam332]

• 1Pet. 4:6 For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.

Tells us that the gospel "was"(past tense) preached to those who "are"(present tense) dead. What meaning does this verse hold?.....Peter did not imply that the gospel was then being preached to the souls of the dead, as some teach. He said the gospel "was preached" to those who "are [now] dead." The preaching was done while they were still alive, and they will be judged on the basis of how they lived "according to men in the flesh," or while they were still alive.

Peter is undoubtedly talking about the Christian dead, because he refers to their living again "according to God [as God lives] in the spirit." In other words, they will receive immortality in the resurrection and will have a life that measures with the life of God.

_________

• 1Pet.3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit: 19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison; 20 Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.

There has been considerable misunderstanding of these verses of Scripture. It has been taught that Christ actually descended into the lower regions of the earth and preached to lost souls who were in prison in some type of purgatory or limbo. This is very far from what the text actually says.

Let's look at it closely now and get the real message of these verses. It says, "Christ also hath once suffered for sins ... that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit: By which also he went and preached."

First of all, notice how Christ preached to those spirits in prison. He did it by the Spirit, and that word is capitalized in your Bible. So whatsoever Christ did in preaching during this period of time, He did it through or by the Holy Spirit.

With that in view, let's ask this: "When was the preaching done?" The answer is plainly given in v. 20: "when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing." So the preaching was actually done while the ark was being built, during the preaching of Noah to that antediluvian world. We even see Peter tell us plainly that Noah was a “preacher of righteousness”, (2Pe 2:5).

Now, one more question: "To whom was the preaching done?". The text says here "unto the spirits in prison." Throughout the Bible we find this terminology used in describing those who are bound in the prison house of sin. David prayed, "Bring my soul out of prison." (Psa. 142:7). Isaiah and Christ describe the same thing that happened to Noah, as happened to them!

Isa 61:1 The SPIRIT OF THE LORD GOD IS UPON ME; because THE LORD HATH ANOINTED ME TO PREACH good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty TO THE CAPTIVES, and the opening of the PRISON to [them that are] BOUND;

Luke 4:18 The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,....21 And he began to say unto them, This day is this scripture fulfilled in your ears.

Paul spoke of his experience in these words, "bringing me into captivity to the law of sin.", (Rom.7:23). What Peter is telling us here is simply that Christ, through the Holy Spirit, was present while Noah preached; Christ was there through the Holy Spirit to speak conviction to their hearts and appeal to them to come into the ark.

There is absolutely nothing in this text to indicate that Jesus left His body during the time He was dead, to go to any subterranean place to minister to wicked spirits. The three questions are clearly answered in the text itself: (1) that He preached by the Holy Spirit, (2) He did it while the ark was preparing, and (3) He did it to the spirits in prison, or to those individuals whose sinful lives were bound in the prison house of sin.

 

[Andrew]

1Pet.3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit: 19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison; 20 Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.

My church and I believe the verse is talking abt Jesus proclaiming his victory (cross) to the fallen angels in hell, who during the time of Noah, had sex with human women to produce the giants -- a bid to corrupt the seed of man to prevent the coming of the Son of Man, who had to be fully human, fully God.

Jude 1:6
6 And the angels who did not keep their positions of authority but abandoned their own home--these he has kept in darkness, bound with everlasting chains for judgment on the great Day.

The verse says that certain angels had "crossed the line", perhaps by taking on physical forms to mate with humans. Their disobedience resulted in their being chained up in darkness for judgment at a later time.

1 Peter 3:19,20
19 through whom also he went and preached to the spirits in prison
20 who disobeyed long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built. In it only a few people, eight in all, were saved through water,

Who or what were these disobedient spirits in the days of Noah, who are now imprisoned? The verse has striking similarities to Jude 1:6 as well as 2 Peter 2:4.

2 Peter 2:4
4 For if God did not spare angels when they sinned, but sent them to hell, putting them into gloomy dungeons to be held for judgment;

 

[adam332]

Andrew,
there is no mention or inference to angels in that passage. Matter of fact he is sure to note that after the preaching was done EIGHT PEOPLE were saved. The subject is contextually speaking about PEOPLE. And to them being saved or not. The verses I shown has much more similarity when taken in context that Noah was preaching with the Lord's spirit to those who were in prison. Please exame my exmples of the same exact thing in Luke and Isa. that I showed.

 

[Andrew]

adam,

your interpretation argues that preaching is done to the spirits of men bound in sin. I believe we preach the gospel to people, not their spirits becos their spirit is spiritually dead. The listen with their ears and mind, not spirit.

Note the verse says whom at "sometime were disobedient". Now if this just refers to sinners, does that mean we were only at a certain time sinners?

 

[brotherjim]

Originally posted by Andrew
adam,

your interpretation argues that preaching is done to the spirits of men bound in sin. I believe we preach the gospel to people, not their spirits becos their spirit is spiritually dead. The listen with their ears and mind, not spirit.

Note the verse says whom at "sometime were disobedient". Now if this just refers to sinners, does that mean we were only at a certain time sinners?

 

Brother andrew,

You make a good point. To be more precise, it's the "SOULS" of man that are either saved or lost. And their listening is with their HEART and mind. It's the heart wherein God supernaturally writes the Living Word.

May I inquire as to what church you attend? Just curious, since their understanding seems to line up with mine.

bro. jim

 

[Andrew]

brotherjim,

i'm singaporean and attend New Creation Church -- non-denom/charismatic etc.
some pixs here:
http://sg.geocities.com/saltandlight5/nccpictorial

Just curious, since their understanding seems to line up with mine.

r u refering to what i said in post 2? if so, i've written a bit more of it here.
http://sg.geocities.com/saltandlight5/giants.html

which church do you attend? any website?

shalom

 

[brotherjim]

Thanks andrew - I'll check out the sites now. Wow! - Singapore. That's a bit far away from here in Pennsylvania. Yes, I was refering to Post #2. Do you know where your pastor was trained? (Since it's non-denom., I'm wondering where the doctrine of your church originated.) I have a small fellowship in my home, although in the last year I was in attendence at Whitehall Mennonite Church. They're non-charis., although I am. (I don't have any website.) Some time before that I attended a full gospel Mennonite, and started - well, kinda' - 21 years ago in a nondenom. charismatic probably similar to yours. I'm charismatic, Anabaptist (like from where the Mennonites originated), part evangelical, part fundamentalist, part holiness pentecostal, part . . . did I forget anyone?

 

[adam332]

Andrew,
if the soul/spirit of a sinner is dead in the sense being spoken of, then please explain David's comment.....

 

[adam332]

 

 

[adam332]

Andrew,

please look close at the context of the everything and not just that passage.

15 But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts: and be ready always to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope that is in you with meekness and fear:

16 Having a good conscience; that, whereas they speak evil of you, as of evildoers, they may be ashamed that falsely accuse your good conversation in Christ.

17 For it is better, if the will of God be so, that ye suffer for well doing, than for evil doing.

18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:

19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison;

20 Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.

21 The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ:

22 Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him.

1 Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin;

2 That he no longer should live the rest of his time in the flesh to the lusts of men, but to the will of God.

3 For the time past of our life may suffice us to have wrought the will of the Gentiles, when we walked in lasciviousness, lusts, excess of wine, revellings, banquetings, and abominable idolatries:

4 Wherein they think it strange that ye run not with them to the same excess of riot, speaking evil of you:

5 Who shall give account to him that is ready to judge the quick and the dead.

6 For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.

The whole passage is comparing the good men and the bad men, over and over and then finally a comparison to the eight good with the all ungodly men who weren't saved.

And here’s the clincher, Peter identifies EXACTLY WHO THEY ARE!

Please note in v. 6 above Peter is referencing the “preaching” he had just talked about in v.19!!!! MEN IN THE FLESH, WHO ARE NOW DEAD!

Are you posing your theory on the word "sometimes"?

Let's look a little closer at that shall we?

__________

4218 pote

from the base of 4225 and 5037; ; particle

AV-in time past 5, at any time 3, in times past 3, sometimes 3, sometime 3, once 2, not tr 1, misc 9; 29

1) once i.e. formerly, aforetime, at some time

____________

You see, you can rule out "sometimes" as being any kind of absolute. It's primary meaning is "once or formerly, etc..". The KJV translators used 16 different terms in it’s only 29 occurrences

This gives the connation of past-tense(formerly), not a record of occurrence(sometimes).

Let's see how it is rendered by other translators....

NIV- who disobeyed long ago when God waited patiently....

NASB- who once were disobedient, when the patience of God....

AMP- [The souls of those] who long before in the days of Noah had been disobedient, when God's patience....

NLT- those who disobeyed God long ago when God waited patiently...

CEV- They had disobeyed God while Noah was building the boat, but God had been patient...

NKJV- who formerly were disobedient, when once the Divine longsuffering waited....

ASV- that aforetime were disobedient, when the longsuffering of God waited...

WE- In the days long ago, they did not obey God. God waited....

etc....

Doesn't your theory result in the Spirit of the Lord preaching through Noah to fallen angels? Is that who He was so longsuffering and patient with?

2 Peter 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.

2 Peter 3:15 And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you;

Peter again emphasizes God’s longsuffering, this time in context of the second coming which is compared repeatedly as being “like in the days of Noah”. Peter is quite clear in both epistles and mentions both times the earth was and will be destroyed and God’s longsuffering towards men was manifested is His continual preaching so that we all might be saved, and not just eight people. Nowhere does he nor anyone else talk about preaching to the fallen angels or that he was longsuffering towards them that they might be saved from the flood or the fire.

 

[Andrew]

Thanks andrew - I'll check out the sites now. Wow! - Singapore. That's a bit far away from here in Pennsylvania. Yes,ÊI was refering to Post #2. Do you know where your pastor was trained? (Since it's non-denom., I'm wondering where the doctrine of your church originated.)[/b]

He didnt go to Bible school of any sort, except school of the Holy Spirit. *L. well neither did Peter.

I'm charismatic, Anabaptist (like from where the Mennonites originated), part evangelical, part fundamentalist, part holiness pentecostal, part . . . did I forget anyone?

as for doctrines of the church, our ÒphiloÓ is simply this: we take whatever God reveals to us. we do not want to be boxed and limited to any denom.

but just to give some specifics:
1. we believe in salvation by grace thru faith alone in Jesus.
2. Baptism of the Holy Spirit with tongues as the sign.
3. Gifts of the Holy Spirit.
4. Baptism by immersion as an outward declaration of faith.
....well what does that make us? *L

you say you have a small fellowship in your home, does that mean you started your own church and are pastoring it?

what's Mennonite? not fam with that. pls elaborate...

shalom

 

[brotherjim]

Dear adam.

I know your Post #10 was addressed to Andrew, but I wonder if you would mind my interjecting something that may be of help ( if you woyld rathger I butt-out, I solicit your say-so and would not be offended).

I can see from your excerpting the passage of context, why this would seem confusing, and why you would reach the conclusion you have.

If you have any kind of Bible reference books, or if you surf to crosswalk.com where such are avail. free on-line, you can search the words translated "preached" in both 1Pet.3:19 AND 1Pet.4:6. You will see two different Greek words were used. While both COULD be trans. "preached" as was done, there are subtle differences between the two. See how the first usage in these two verses was more of a "heralding," or, "declaration," and the latter (4:6) an evangelizing, so to speak.

The Bible is an astounding, mind-boggling piece of work. It was written in such a way as to confuse all those except to whom the Father wills to reveal its truths. There are many paranthetical statements inserted here and there, and many "ramblings," or, as we contemporaries like to refer to them as, chasing of rabbits into their holes.

Keeping that in mind, someone cannot always assume that because a particular passage is, in this example, speaking about man, that it does not also brak away and include other sub-topics.

Much misunderstanding also comes from our not fully comprehending the spirit in man vs. man's soul. This will soon, I believe, be brought to the light of the church. But for now someone is limited. The basic rule of thumb, however, is to keep in mind that when God is dealing with man's eternity, He is doing so with man's SOUL. (I understand the spirit, too, enters into it, especially during the supernatural and instantaneous happening of the New Birth.)

The passage you posted is BOTH speaking about Christ's proclamation to the disobedient angels - of Christ as having the keys to death and Hades, AND, later ALSO telling of how those people dead before His time on earth - or at least a segment of them, such as the Hebraic Jews (your choice) - were evangelized with the Gospel message (angelic spirits are not born-again, but humans can be).

(Note how 1Pet.4:6 says "the Gospel preached ALSO . . ..")

bro. jim

 

[brotherjim]

Brother andrew,

Wow - what a loaded question!

I could write books on what a Mennonite is, or, more specifically and pertinent, waht an Anabaptist is. If you do a search of either term, you will find many sites to more fully answer your question.

Basically, however, the Anabaptists were people to whom the label was attached, starting at the end of the Reformation (I'm guessing mid to late 1500's - forgot exactly right now), who recognized certain commandments within the Word as being disobeyed. (The word itself means twice-baptized, which indicated the need for man to be baptized in water after being born-again. Since many were likely already baptized as infants, this is whay they were labeled those who did so again - something we take for granted today.)

They came to be distinct for their ideals of not being involved in government and politics, pacifism/non-violence/non-resistance, living a life denying themselves most worldly materialism, etc. Many were martyred. The Mennonites were one of many sects to stem from that movement - again, if I remember - which I don't, perhaps in the 17- 0r 1800's. Others were the Quakers, Hutterites, Brethren, Amish, etc.

Not very exiting - right?

Today, most, sad to say, have evolved into a legalistic type of religion as all denominations eventually do. This is why I refer to myself as Anabaptist - and I would prefer to say lower case "anabaptist," but it's not correct according to dictionaries - which is a generic term conveying the statement that I generally adhere to those doctrines upon which these entities were founded. In other words, I believe them because they were divinely revealed to my inner person as being deeper Truth of God, and not in any way as an act of the flesh to deny myself things for the sake of denying.

I surfed the two sites you gave me, and as I suspected and said, your church is near-identical - in size and beliefs - to the one I attended for the first 10 years of my Christian walk. I, too, like your pastor, was "self"-taught the Gospel, and am not connected to, or ordained by, any denomination beyond the legal entity of my own fellowship I birthed. All such, however, need to submit to the higher spiritual authority of an apostle. Is your pastor under such an headship?

Wow - Singapore! Bet it's warmer there than here! (High of 35F today.)

Your brother in Him, jim

P.S. I should also mention that my calling is not that of a pastor, but an intinerant speaker - I do not hold regular, ongoing church meetings. So if I ever do not respond to any continuing posts here with you, it's either because I'm not home or, as I also do, I have withdrawn from this sort of thing for an extended time, to give myself over to writing and such (which I also do when away from home in my spare time).

 

[brotherjim]

adam, [and others,]

P.S. I was also reminded to mention another basic rule of thumb when studying the scriptures.

God is not loquacious: He is not prone to repeating Himself in the Word, unless He has a specific reason for doing so, e.g. "verily, verily," "truly, truly," "forever and ever," etc. In 1Peter He had no such reason in Chapters 3 and 4 - in ref. to the "preached" thing.

 

[adam332]

Brother Jim,
good call! I had not noticed the use of two different words for "preach".
But, even though that does not show my position to be as iron clad, the word preach is still the primary translation and and a primary definition for both. And who was he refereing if not those spoken of in v.19? Is there anyone else in the context of these two chapters that he may have been referring to with the word he used in v.6? The words for the most part mean the same thing, so who was he talking about contextually referring to then?

And as far as your comments on soul and spirit, wellllll that subject is a hornets nest all by itself. But, suffice to say those words were used interchangeably as were there Hebrew and Greek counterparts. From the usage, throughout the scripture they had a multitude of connatations, and were defined and translated accordingly.

BTW Jump into any comments I make to anyone at anytime.

You said;
"The passage you posted is BOTH speaking about Christ's proclamation to the disobedient angels...." Again that is pure speculation, but nowhere does this area of scipture mention angels at all. Neither does any book of the Bible mention men ever preaching to angels.

The word "also" in verse 6 is referring to those whom Peter wrote, the gospel was being preached to them,. Why?

V. 1  Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin; 2  That he no longer should live the rest of his time in the flesh to the lusts of men, but to the will of God....6  For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.

There is the "also" them and the dead. But, again which dead is he referring to that was preched to? Well, the only other contextual comparison to such he gave is in v. 19!

 

[brotherjim]

Originally posted by adam332
Brother Jim,
good call! I had not noticed the use of two different words for "preach".
But, even though that does not show my position to be as iron clad, the word preach is still the primary translation and and a primary definition for both. And who was he refereing if not those spoken of in v.19? Is there anyone else in the context of these two chapters that he may have been referring to with the word he used in v.6? The words for the most part mean the same thing, so who was he talking about contextually referring to then?

Well, first, I disagree when you say preached is the primary definition of both Greek words. I don't know how much you researched the words, but I do not conclude as you do from my studies. And the fact a different word was used just verses apart, again, should be a hint that two different things are being spoken of. And, yes, I cannot refute the jist of 1 Peter in its entirety is talking about people. All I can say is what I said before. If God's Word was to be judged by today's literary standard, it's run-on sentences and "ramblings" and parenthetical statements all over the place, well . . .

You seem to be looking for black and white, perfectly boxed and categorized fulfillment of the intellectual pursuit of the Word. I say this not in any way as personal judgment, for we are all wanting our questions to be neatly and precisely and methodically answered. But such pursuits by man are, at their core, a lust of the fleshly mind. And lusts, no matter how well-meaning, are never satisfied, and the Lord does not choose to unveil Himself this way. Just a generalization.


 

And as far as your comments on soul and spirit, wellllll that subject is a hornets nest all by itself. But, suffice to say those words were used interchangeably as were there Hebrew and Greek counterparts. From the usage, throughout the scripture they had a multitude of connatations, and were defined and translated accordingly.

Having written extensively on soul and spirit a decade or so ago, I came to a different conclusion, and all my answers regarding the differences between soul and spirit were satisfied. I do not believe they were interchangable at all, but such will have to wait insofar as my providing evidence to this. (You wouldn't happen to be a book publisher, would you?   )

BTW Jump into any comments I make to anyone at anytime.

Thank you for the confirmation/reassurance.

You said;
"The passage you posted is BOTH speaking about Christ's proclamation to the disobedient angels...." Again that is pure speculation, but nowhere does this area of scipture mention angels at all. Neither does any book of the Bible mention men ever preaching to angels.

Correct, this is the only mention of angels I also saw in the passage. And also correct, men do not preach to angels. There is nothing we have to say to them. Angels, as I said, cannot be born-again, so there's no purpose in preaching the Gospel to them. Besides, I would guess they know it better than most or all of us anyway. This is why the different Greek word there. It was not preaching by Christ as to His Way of salvation, but Him proclaiming victory over death and the grave, and His obtaining the keys to both. It was, if I can be cute here, Him letting the spirits know that they have a new warden.

" . . . angels . . . they are ministering spirits . . .."

The word "also" in verse 6 is referring to those whom Peter wrote, the gospel was being preached to them,. Why?

V. 1  Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin; 2  That he no longer should live the rest of his time in the flesh to the lusts of men, but to the will of God....6  For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.

There is the "also" them and the dead. But, again which dead is he referring to that was preched to? Well, the only other contextual comparison to such he gave is in v. 19!

Actually, I believe if you look at verse 5, and what led up to it, you might conclude the "also" was referring to the "dead" of verse 5. Let me paraphrase:

". . . you run not with them to the same excess of riot . . . who shall give account to Him that is ready to judge . . . the dead. This is why they were also preached to . . .."

But it certainly isn't clear as to exactly what or who was "also," so I won't belabor the point.

Remember too, theologians much smarter than you or I have for centuries pondered these same things. Intellectual discourse never unlocks the often well-hidden meanings of scipture. The Holy Ghost has the keys, and we must "lean not upon [our] own understanding, but in all [our] ways acknowledge Him, and He SHALL guide our paths."

bro. jim

 

[brotherjim]

Adam,

Sorry, I goofed up that last post, my words being intermingled with yours. How do you paste the quotes in broken up boxes so that you can comment in between??

Computer illiterate, jim

 

[brotherjim]

Adam,

P.S. (This is now twice that I forgot this.)

Referring back a few posts, you also said something to andrew about how the word "prison" always referred to people, and this should then be basis for your belief of 1Pet3:19 speaking of people.

If you look in Peter's second letter, you find:

". . . angels that sinned . . . and delivered them into chains of darkness . . .."

I think you might also find interesting what the very next verse, 2Pet2:5, talks about.

bro. jim

 

[adam332]

Brother Jim;

you said;

“Actually, I believe if you look at verse 5, and what led up to it, you might conclude the "also" was referring to the "dead" of verse 5. Let me paraphrase:”

I know that, I as much as said that and I thought that was a given since that is the verse in question. If there is an “also” it requires at least two parties. To which I named both, the dead, and to those to whom this was written. Which only leaves us one question....

What dead folks is he referring that had been preached to?

Shouldn’t we let the context of his letter take precedent over similar terminology, especially in light that it has similar terminology behind it as well?

You said;

“Remember too, theologians much smarter than you or I have for centuries pondered these same things. Intellectual discourse never unlocks the often well-hidden meanings of scipture. The Holy Ghost has the keys, and we must "lean not upon [our] own understanding, but in all [our] ways acknowledge Him, and He SHALL guide our paths."“

I don’t give the Holy Ghost any less faith that he can show me or you more than any of them in a blink of an eye.

You said;

“Referring back a few posts, you also said something to andrew about how the word "prison" always referred to people, and this should then be basis for your belief of 1Pet3:19 speaking of people.”.

I never said that it “always referred to people“.

_________

I said;

“Throughout the Bible we find this terminology used in describing those who are bound in the prison house of sin. David prayed, "Bring my soul out of prison." (Psa. 142:7). Isaiah and Christ describe the same thing that happened to Noah, as happened to them!

Isa. 61:1 The SPIRIT OF THE LORD GOD IS UPON ME; because the Lord hath anointed me TO PREACH good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty TO THE CAPTIVES, and the opening OF THE PRISON to them THAT ARE BOUND;

Luke 4:18 THE SPIRIT OF THE LORD IS UPON ME, because he hath anointed me TO PREACH THE GOSPEL to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, TO PREACH DELIVERANCE TO THE CAPTIVES, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,”

_________

Haven’t we established that Noah was the preacher through whom the Lord’s Spirit preached, to the those in “prison”?

This is the same exact manner that Christ and Isaiah declare that they preached!!

The ONLY difference is that Peter uses the words “spirits in prison”, but this again is shown not to be the case for I have already shown where David, said “bring my soul out of prison”. This coupled with strongs and greek lexicon which tell us that spirits can be referring to as ...

“2) the spirit, i.e. the vital principal by which the body is animated

2a) the rational spirit, the power by which the human being feels, thinks, decides

2b) the soul

3) a spirit, i.e. a simple essence, devoid of all or at least all grosser matter, and possessed of the power of knowing, desiring, deciding, and acting

3a) a life giving spirit ”

_________

So far the connections I can see that your tying these two areas of scripture with is;

“chains” = “prison”

Peter wrote them both.

2Pet. 2:4 speaks of angels that are chained and in the next verse speaks of Noah = 1Pet. 3:19 speaks of spirits in prison and the next verse speaks of Noah.

The thing that you missing is that in 2Peter 2 is giving us 4 separate and distinct examples of God’s wrath and judgment. He in no way implies Noah and the angels are connected to each other any more than Sodom is connected to them. They are separate examples of a warning to those described in v. 1-3.

1Pet. 3 on the other hand does connect those in prison to Noah and it is not part of some separate example!

What does Jude tell us...The angels which left their own home, are kept forever bound by darkness until the great day of judgment.

What does Peter tell us....the same thing, with the exception that he indicates God kicked them out and Jude indicates they left.

So where does it say they were preached to? Where does it mention them in connection with Noah or his actions? Nowhere!

 

[brotherjim]

adam,

I'm done.

bro.jim