jnhofzinser said:Let me respond to this as if it encompassed everyone's objection.
First, let me agree to some facts:
Can mutations cause indels? yes.
Can mutations cause large indels? yes.
Mutations do not cause indels. Indels are a form of a mutation.
What do you consider non-indels when referring to the paper?For the sake of discussion, let's ignore the non-indels (as they represent far fewer nt, but far more events, this shouldn't be a problem for anyone).
How do you conclude from the data that the accumulation of indels represents the difference between a non-human ancestor and human-kind? We know virtually nothing about the indels we are talking about, other than that they are there. We don't know whether they are coding for anything, we don't know in what kind of DNA region they are. So how do you conclude this? They might all be located in stretches of non-coding DNA for all we know from the paper? So where do you get the conclusion that they represent the difference between a non-human ancestor and human-kind. You're putting the cart before the horse here.So, for the sake of discussion, the accumulation of indels represents the difference between a non-human ancestor and human-kind. Clearly, they did not all happen at once. However, just as clearly, these indels are characterized NOT by simple repetition of existing genetic material (if they were, this would be observed in the alignment process, incidentally).
Since a mutation is a change in the DNA, and an insertion changes the DNA, an insertion is necessarily a mutation. I really don't get how you can conclude that this would not be the case.But in the case under discussion we were NOT talking about some random 4000nt insertion or some 4000nt replication. We were talking about 4000nt hunks of NEW CODE. 4000nt that, for all we know, is critical, in its entirety, to construct the creature we know as "man". As Gluadys quotes Dawkins, "Jumping gaps is not what evolution [by which we can probably agree that Dawkins means natural selection] does." 4knt hunks of new code are most certainly gaps. To blythely wave our hand at such an insertion and say "it is just a mutation" is preposterous. As Gluadys correctly says:
But on to the rest of your post. How do you know it is 'new code'? What is 'new code' according to you, and how does it seperate itself from 'old code'? What do we know of these mutations that leads you to this conclusion? Why can't it be a replication, to name an example? A number of the indels in the paper were already identified as being caused by slippage, especially in the homopolymeric regions. Furthermore, inversion and translocation were also pointed out as mechanisms. Next to that, the 10,000 bases substitution I referred to in the paper on genetic diseases isn't a duplication either. You are making a lot of assertions here, but I have no idea where you get them all from.
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