My version of history is one that really tries to look at all sides. For example, in the view of the OO there have not been seven at all.
I do not see anything in this document that indicates every individual must accept. Surely, when speaking of the 'whole church' -- does that mean each individual? Because if so, someone cannot said to have become 'fallen away' if they disagree, and without evidence that each individual agreed on these seven, then no council is valid.
But can you explain how these two things from the document make sense? First, it says that:
An Ecumenical Synod may be defined as a synod the decrees of which have found acceptance by the Church in the whole world.
Then it proceeds to say this:
2. The Second Ecumenical Council was called together by the Emperor without the knowledge of the Roman Pontiff. Nor was he invited to be present. Its first president was not in communion at the time of its session with the Roman Church. And, without any recourse to the first of all the patriarchs, it passed a canon changing the order of the patriarchates, and setting the new see of Constantinople in a higher place than the other ancient patriarchates, in fact immediately after Rome. Of course Protestants will consider this a matter of very minor importance, looking upon all patriarchal divisions and rank and priority (the Papacy included) as of a disciplinary character and as being jure ecclesiastico, and in no way affecting doctrine, but any fair reading of the third canon of this synod would seem plainly to assert that as the first rank of Rome rested upon the fact of its being the capital city, so the new capital city should have the second rank. If this interpretation is correct it affects very materially the Roman claim of jure divino primacy.
Isn't is a little contradictory to espouse that every individual has to agree before a council is ecumenical but think that you can have a council without even inviting the western half of the church and that's perfectly okay?