Maybe not the way you believe "predestination"?So you believe in God's predestination & God's exhaustive foreknowledge?
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Maybe not the way you believe "predestination"?So you believe in God's predestination & God's exhaustive foreknowledge?
It says that if you read through to chapter 3...He is the propitiation who turns away the wrath of God from the elect.I'm not fighting for any particular atonement theory since there are at least 7 and each one holds some truth.
However, Romans 1:15-20 is not support for Jesus being used to calm God's wrath.
It states that God's wrath has been REVEALED against all ungodliness and all unrighteousness of men...BECAUSE God has made Himself manifest to man from the beginning of time and so man has no excuse.
It does NOT say that Jesus appeased this wrath.
You must mean Romans 5:9It says that if you read through to chapter 3...He is the propitiation who turns away the wrath of God from the elect.
I think you mean this for me.No....I meant what I said. Romans1 to chapter 3:23-26, if you understand it.
The"early church" was already departing from truth so they were not a good barometer. The scripture is the rule of faith and practice.
You're responding to posts from years ago. Instead of jumping from post to post, why don't you make your case and we can address it.Why are you persistently elusive to answer as to whom the ransom was paid to? If God doesn't require the ransom, to whom was it paid?
The statement "I will greatly multiply thy sorrow" which was a consequence of their action doesn't need the wrathful heart of God to pronounce the deadly curses? Does the statement made "in the realm of time" come from God's heart like from a senseless robotic machine?
What does God's wrath in John 3:36 and many other verses mean? Are they also not involving the angry heart of God?
No....I meant what I said. Romans1 to chapter 3:23-26, if you understand it.
The"early church" was already departing from truth so they were not a good barometer. The scripture is the rule of faith and practice.
Butch5,
Thanks for the follow up question asking for clarification;
It is in the text...let's look;
Paul explains why he is looking to present the gospel of which he is NOT ASHAMED;
15 So, as much as in me is, I am ready to preach the gospel to you that are at Rome also.
16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.
17 For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.
Why is he preaching the Gospel, notice the next verse starts with;
18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;
19 Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.
20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:
However, I don't see anything in this passage that says these men can somehow appease the wrath of God that is against them.
That's not the point. Where does Scripture say that God requires his wrath be appeased. Unless one can establish this from Scripture the Penal model is based on speculation. The Scriptures don't say that God requires His wrath be appeased. This idea is simply assumed and then certain passages are claimed to support the idea. It's simply reading an idea into the text.Butch5,
Men cannot do this. That is why Jesus came to save those given to Him by the Father. He is the one who turns away the wrath.
This is also for @Butch5Butch5,
Men cannot do this. That is why Jesus came to save those given to Him by the Father. He is the one who turns away the wrath.
Maybe you are correct. God sends multitudes of sinners into eternal torment because He loves them and has a wonderful plan for their life.That's not the point. Where does Scripture say that God requires his wrath be appeased. Unless one can establish this from Scripture the Penal model is based on speculation. The Scriptures don't say that God requires His wrath be appeased. This idea is simply assumed and then certain passages are claimed to support the idea. It's simply reading an idea into the text.
Penal substitutionary atonement is the biblical teaching without which there is.no gospelThis is also for @Butch5
The Penal Substitution Theory of Atonement came about at the reformation when all of Catholicism was being rejected.
This theory was not known before this time.
The idea that Jesus takes our place is a rather dangerous idea.
Why?
How many times have we heard that we need to NOTHING to be saved but accept Jesus because HE has covered for us and done it all for us.
Nothing could be further from the truth and many are living in a state of false security.
If you notice,,,Jesus did not speak too much about "being saved". Not that I don't believe we need to be since it is HE that stated John 3:3, 5
But what Jesus DID speak to and teach is that we need to be born of the spirit,,,,yes,,,but that WE need to live a holy life because God is holy.
1 Peter 1:16
He said WE need to be perfect like our Father in heaven is perfect.
Matthew 5:48
He said that WE need to not be lawless since it is THOSE that will not be saved.
Matthew 7:23
We do not love a wrathful God that needs sacrifice...
God said that He does not want sacrifice, but wants our heart.
1 Samuel 15:22 and many other verses.
God has been mad at mankind.
Jesus is the perfect and final sacrifice.
But is this the ONLY reason He came to us??
Sarcasm doesn't make the case. Let me ask you a question. If Jesus died to appease God's wrath, what role is there for forgiveness?Maybe you are correct. God sends multitudes of sinners into eternal torment because He loves them and has a wonderful plan for their life.
Paul was mistaken in Roman's 1.
God is amused by our idolatry, murder,and sexual perversion.
Yes, I see what you are saying now.
He was just kidding with the flood, a n d Sodom and Gommorah .
It's not. If you look at history you'll find that it wasn't taught until the Reformation. It's a tweaked version of Anselm's Satifaction Model which came about around 1100 AD.Penal substitutionary atonement is the biblical teaching without which there is.no gospel
Butch5 is correct. The "penal substitution" doctrine did not appear until the 16th century Reformation. it is blatantly false. God cannot punish an innocent man.Penal substitutionary atonement is the biblical teaching without which there is.no gospel
The above is not for me but is rather a silly reply to a serious discussion.Maybe you are correct. God sends multitudes of sinners into eternal torment because He loves them and has a wonderful plan for their life.
Paul was mistaken in Roman's 1.
God is amused by our idolatry, murder,and sexual perversion.
Yes, I see what you are saying now.
He was just kidding with the flood, a n d Sodom and Gommorah .
Penal substitutionary atonement is the biblical teaching without which there is.no gospel