Deadworm
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- May 26, 2016
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PhiloVoid: "this tact on Paul that you are dredging out...smacks of a lack of critical thinking."
LOL, it is inspired by David Dungan's scholarly book, "The Saying of Jesus in the Churches of Paul." And I have taught at Harvard and been a Theology professor for 12 years.
PhiloVoid: " Many seem to love spotting that Paul doesn't much quote Jesus' words directly. when they resort to spotting this supposed "deficiency" of Paul..."
I'll excuse your misreading on the grounds of deficient reading comprehension. I just got through defending Paul on the grounds that his teaching was approved by the Jerusalem apostles. No "deficiency" is insinuated.
"How would have Paul "quoted" Jesus? Where exactly were the "real life" social connections, venues, or literary sources by which Paul would have quoted Jesus?"
Here is the scholarly consensus: Before there were written Gospels, there were sayings collections like Q and the Coptic Gospel of Thomas, collections of controversy stories, and "signs" sources. Concurrently, there was a memorized oral tradition. To see just how demanding rabbinic memorization programs were in Jesus' era, read Birger Gerhardsson's magisterial "Memory and Manuscript." We have no certain information on the extent of Paul's sources of Jesus' sayings. That fact is one of the reasons why I posted the thread in question. By "quote" I of course mean the form of Jesus' sayings in either current oral tradition or Paul's written sources. Paul's audience would want to know as much as possible about Jesus' words and deeds!
PhiloVoid: "First off, Paul did not give an exception."
Oh yes he did--in the same way that Matthew adds the exceptive clause to the same prohibition (5:43; 19:9). Christians in untenable marriages wanted to know if their divorce, actual or impending, violated Jesus' prohibition. Paul wants divorced Christian spouses either to remain single or seek reconciliation. Then Paul shifts his focus to marriages between Christians and unbelievers ("To the rest, I say...") in which the unbeliever is in the process of securing a divorce.
Paul's reassurance in 7:15 allows such divorces as an exception to Jesus' rule. The divorced Christian in this situation has not sinned due to a divorce which may have left him/her with no choice. The question that remains is this: Can the divorced Christian remarry? Hans Conzelman's Commentary provides the obvious answer:
"Once again the law of freedom prevails: the Christian is not subject to any constraint because of the pagan's behavior. He can marry again (p. 123)." "In such a case, the believer is not bound. It is to peace that God has called you (7:15)."
You also miss the point in 9:14 about Paul's repudiation of Jesus' authorization of missionary salary rights. Paul's tentmaking skills make him an exception to Jesus' rule, but it is still an exception! In both 7:10, 15 and 9:14-15 , Paul uses common sense in a way that would hardly have offended Jesus.
Here is the most important point that eludes you. Why doesn't Paul ever explicitly quote or allude to a saying of Jesus in a context where Paul has no intention of pointing out an exception? And just how much did Paul and his congregations really know about the words and deeds of the historical Jesus? Those are the questions that prompted my addendum to my preceding thread.
LOL, it is inspired by David Dungan's scholarly book, "The Saying of Jesus in the Churches of Paul." And I have taught at Harvard and been a Theology professor for 12 years.
PhiloVoid: " Many seem to love spotting that Paul doesn't much quote Jesus' words directly. when they resort to spotting this supposed "deficiency" of Paul..."
I'll excuse your misreading on the grounds of deficient reading comprehension. I just got through defending Paul on the grounds that his teaching was approved by the Jerusalem apostles. No "deficiency" is insinuated.
"How would have Paul "quoted" Jesus? Where exactly were the "real life" social connections, venues, or literary sources by which Paul would have quoted Jesus?"
Here is the scholarly consensus: Before there were written Gospels, there were sayings collections like Q and the Coptic Gospel of Thomas, collections of controversy stories, and "signs" sources. Concurrently, there was a memorized oral tradition. To see just how demanding rabbinic memorization programs were in Jesus' era, read Birger Gerhardsson's magisterial "Memory and Manuscript." We have no certain information on the extent of Paul's sources of Jesus' sayings. That fact is one of the reasons why I posted the thread in question. By "quote" I of course mean the form of Jesus' sayings in either current oral tradition or Paul's written sources. Paul's audience would want to know as much as possible about Jesus' words and deeds!
PhiloVoid: "First off, Paul did not give an exception."
Oh yes he did--in the same way that Matthew adds the exceptive clause to the same prohibition (5:43; 19:9). Christians in untenable marriages wanted to know if their divorce, actual or impending, violated Jesus' prohibition. Paul wants divorced Christian spouses either to remain single or seek reconciliation. Then Paul shifts his focus to marriages between Christians and unbelievers ("To the rest, I say...") in which the unbeliever is in the process of securing a divorce.
Paul's reassurance in 7:15 allows such divorces as an exception to Jesus' rule. The divorced Christian in this situation has not sinned due to a divorce which may have left him/her with no choice. The question that remains is this: Can the divorced Christian remarry? Hans Conzelman's Commentary provides the obvious answer:
"Once again the law of freedom prevails: the Christian is not subject to any constraint because of the pagan's behavior. He can marry again (p. 123)." "In such a case, the believer is not bound. It is to peace that God has called you (7:15)."
You also miss the point in 9:14 about Paul's repudiation of Jesus' authorization of missionary salary rights. Paul's tentmaking skills make him an exception to Jesus' rule, but it is still an exception! In both 7:10, 15 and 9:14-15 , Paul uses common sense in a way that would hardly have offended Jesus.
Here is the most important point that eludes you. Why doesn't Paul ever explicitly quote or allude to a saying of Jesus in a context where Paul has no intention of pointing out an exception? And just how much did Paul and his congregations really know about the words and deeds of the historical Jesus? Those are the questions that prompted my addendum to my preceding thread.
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