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You will note that it was a question, not a conclusion.How did you come to that conclusion?
The Gentiles at Nineveh didn't; and YHWH didn't ask them to. He said that he was going to destroy them; and they knew exactly what to do, they bowed down and repented; and then they were saved.
You'll soon find out here that black and white doesn't carry much weight for some.I really don't understand how anyone could think the Last Supper wasn't a Passover meal. There it is, in black and white. In three separate Gospels, no less. How is this not a no-brainer?
< sigh >
There is no error, only one's unbelief of apostolic teaching, in:
"All who are of works of the law (rather than of grace and faith) are under a curse." (Galatians 3:10)
.
You will note that it was a question, not a conclusion.
So all the Gentiles sojourned with the Jews?
"Oh my," indeed.
Yes. . .that it means what it states.
Romans 2 is about the Mosaic law, which was long after Sodom.
You'll soon find out here that black and white doesn't carry much weight for some.
Who said the law didn't "stand"?
Yes, sin comes first. . .and the text of the apostle also stands, "All who are of works of the law (rather than of grace and faith) are under a curse." (Galatians 3:10)
But for the fact that according to the Jewish Encyclopedia.* * * In the renewed covenant, YHWH has offered the lamb. Yahshua (Yah's salvation) is the door. The blood is on YHWH's doorposts. He is inviting us into his home, to be part of his family, under his headship. Are you of the house of Yashar EL? Do you believe that YHWH allows rebellion in his house?
As well as mine, that the Gentiles were not under the Mosaic law.then you know it was added later. After Sodom actually proves my point...
Yes, because all the Gentiles did not sojourn with the Jews, all the Gentiles were not under the Mosaic law and were judged by a different standard, given in Romans 2:14-15, as I stated.It appeared as petitio principii to me:
Oh well, asked and answered.
I give up. . .what?Yes, when you sin, you break God's laws and are under the curse of death. If there is no law and no sin, what need is there for grace???????
As well as mine, that the Gentiles were not under the Mosaic law.
Glad we are in agreement.
I give up. . .what?
My point exactly, the Gentiles were judged by a different law, as explained in Romans 2:14-15, because they were not under the law of Moses, which different law condemned them.Those who are under the curses of the law; are those who transgress the law.
One law for all.
(CLV) Ro 2:11
For there is not partiality with God,
(CLV) Ro 2:12
for whoever sinned without law, without law also shall perish, and whoever sinned in law, through law will be judged.
But for the fact that according to the Jewish Encyclopedia.
Jewish Encyclopedia-Names of God
In appearance, Yhwh (יהוה) is the third person singular imperfect "kal" of the verb ("to be"), meaning, therefore, "He is," or "He will be," or, perhaps, "He lives," the root idea of the word being, probably, "to blow," "to breathe," and hence, "to live." With this explanation agrees the meaning of the name given in Ex. iii. 14, where God is represented as speaking, and hence as using the first person—"I am" (אהיה, from (היה, the later equivalent of the archaic stem (הוה). The meaning would, therefore, be "He who is self-existing, self-sufficient," or, more concretely, "He who lives," the abstract conception of pure existence being foreign to Hebrew thought. There is no doubt that the idea of life was intimately connected with the name Yhwh from early times. He is the living God, as contrasted with the lifeless gods of the heathen, and He is the source and author of life (comp. I Kings xviii.; Isa. xli. 26-29, xliv. 6-20; Jer. x. 10, 14; Gen. ii. 7; etc.). So familiar is this conception of God to the Hebrew mind that it appears in the common formula of an oath, "hai Yhwh" (חי־יהוה= "as Yhwh lives"; Ruth iii. 13; I Sam. xiv. 45; etc.).
If the explanation of the form above given be the true one, the original pronunciation must have been Yahweh (יהוה) or Yahaweh (יהוה). From this the contracted form Jah or Yah (יה) is most readily explained, and also the forms Jeho or Yeho (יהו), and Jo or Yo (יו contracted from יהו, which the word assumes in combination in the first part of compound proper names, and Yahu or Yah (יהו) in the second part of such names. The fact may also be mentioned that in Samaritan poetry יהוה with words similar in ending to Yahweh, and Theodoret ("Quæst. 15 in Exodum") states that the Samaritans pronounced the name Iαβέ. Epiphanius ascribes the same pronunciation to an early Christian sect. Clement of Alexandria, still more exactly, pronounces 'Iαουέ or 'Iαουαί[/font], and Origen, 'Iα. Aquila wrote the name in archaic Hebrew letters. In the Jewish-Egyptian magic-papyri it appears as Ιαωουηε . At least as early as the third century B.C. the name seems to have been regarded by the Jews as a "nomen ineffabile," on the basis of a somewhat extreme interpretation of Ex. xx. 7 and Lev. xxiv. 11 (see Philo, "De Vita Mosis," iii. 519, 529). Written only in consonants, the true pronunciation was forgotten by them. The Septuagint, and after it the New Testament, invariably render κύριος("the Lord").
Jewish Encyclopedia online
Better judged than dead.Yes, because all the Gentiles did not sojourn with the Jews, all the Gentiles were not under the Mosaic law and were judged by a different standard, given in Romans 2:14-15, as I stated.
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