Paradise vs heaven

[tonychanyt]

The Greek word for paradise is G3827 παράδεισος. It appears 27 times in LXX.

Brenton Septuagint Translation, Genesis 2:

8 And God planted a garden [G3827 ] eastward in Edem, and placed there the man whom he had formed.

A paradise seems to be some concept of heaven with physicality.

In the NT, G3827 appears only 3 times.

Jesus told the repentant thief on the cross in Luk 23:

43 And he said to him, “Truly, I say to you, today you will be with me in paradise.”

Paul seemed to equate Paradise to 3rd heaven, in 2 Corinthians 12:

2 I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago was caught up to the third heaven. Whether it was in the body or out of it I do not know, but God knows. 3And I know that this man—whether in the body or out of it I do not know, but God knows— 4was caught up to Paradise. The things he heard were too sacred for words, things that man is not permitted to tell.

John alluded to Genesis 2 with Rev 2:

7 He who has an ear, let him hear what the Spirit says to the churches. To the one who conquers I will grant to eat of the tree of life, which is in the paradise of God.’

In the future, we will live in a renewed version of the Garden of Eden/paradise.

The word heaven is general and polysemantic while paradise is more specifically referring to some form of heaven that has a physical reality to it.

 

[ViaCrucis]

This is an example of where it helps to understand the historical and religious context in which Scripture was written.

When Paul speaks of a man seeing paradise in the third heaven that is imagery that his readers would likely be already familiar with. It comes from Second Temple period Jewish literature. In the apocalyptic portions of the Enochian literature Enoch is taken up and experiences heavenly visions. One of those is viewing the various heavens, in the third heaven he sees the Garden of Eden, aka Paradise.

Now, the works which were later compiled together as the Book of Enoch isn't Scripture, though it is accepted as such by the Ethiopian and Eritrean churches and some in the early Church were favorable toward it; but it was significant in the time period in which the books of the New Testament were written. It's something Paul would have been familiar with, it's something many of his readers would have been familiar with.

But what is important is that there are important details which informs the New Testament which aren't themselves in the New Testament and provides us with an important context to better understand what is written in Scripture.

In the same way that when Jesus talks about two sides of Hades, Abraham's Bosom and Gehenna, these ideas aren't said in a vacuum. Jesus is working within the established ideas of the time, using common language and common images that His listeners would understand. For example, why does Jesus talk about Gehenna when Gehenna was a valley outside of Jerusalem, is Jesus referring to that literal valley? Doubtful. Just as it is doubtful that the Garden of Eden is literally located somewhere "in the third heaven"--itself an idea that needs unpacking, because in the ancient Near East the idea was that there were multiple heavens--which is possibly why the word is always plural in Hebrew. And not just three, though some claim that to be the case. Usually seven, though I believe the Enochian literature speaks of ten.

Seven heavens - Wikipedia for more on that.

-CryptoLutheran

 

[Sorn]

One view is that Paradise was (past tense) where people, who were not condemned to hell, went prior to Jesus dying and paying of sin. So the 2 places in the parable of the the Rich man & Lazarus, specifically where Lazarus was. During the 3 days that Jesus was dead He went in spirit to this 'paradise' place and announced that the way was now open for them to go to heaven & He then takes them there. After that, any saved person that dies goes straight to heaven.

There are other views of what paradise is or isn't of course as per the previous post

 

[eleos1954]

The Greek word for paradise is G3827 παράδεισος. It appears 27 times in LXX.

Brenton Septuagint Translation, Genesis 2:

A paradise seems to be some concept of heaven with physicality.

In the NT, G3827 appears only 3 times.

Jesus told the repentant thief on the cross in Luk 23:


Paul seemed to equate Paradise to 3rd heaven, in 2 Corinthians 12:


John alluded to Genesis 2 with Rev 2:

In the future, we will live in a renewed version of the Garden of Eden/paradise.

The word heaven is general and polysemantic while paradise is more specifically referring to some form of heaven that has a physical reality to it.

Heaven is where God lives (HIs physical home) understood by us to be somewhere in the cosmos

paradise, in religion, a place of exceptional happiness and delight.

Being in the physical presence of the Lord whether in heaven (HIs home now) or the coming newly created earth (which will be His and our new home in the future) when He moves the heavenly kingdom to earth and will then reign over the universe from the newly created earth.

 

[Fireinfolding]

Isn't this who Paul is referring to when he said, he knew a man was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter (as shown in John)

Rev 10:4 when the seven thunders had uttered their voices, I was about to write: and I heard a voice from heaven saying unto me,
Seal up those things which the Seven thunders uttered, and write them not.

Since he also said,

2 Cr 12:4 How that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter

Couldn't John be the one Paul was depicting as the man he knew above fourteen years ago who was that man caught up to the third heaven
and who was "in the Spirit in the Lords day" so Paul could not say (as far as it pertained to him) whether that was in the body or out of it 2 Cr 12:2 & Rev 1:10 & Rev 4:1 (since it doesn't say there either).

Since the Scripture shows it was John who had come up hither being the man which wrote of the things he saw and heard but when he had heard what the Seven thunders uttered (and was about to write) he was also the one commanded to seal those things uttered up and not write them down. And since that command was issued to John specifically, is it unreasonable to believe Paul understood this man who he wrote about was not himself but John rather? Wouldn't that be to whom Paul was referring to when speaking of the one who heard unspeakable words which is not lawful for a man to utter.

2 Cr 12:2-3 I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell:
God knoweth such an one caught up to the third heaven. Rev 1:10, Rev 4:1-2 And I knew such a man, (whether in the body, or out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth Rev 1:10, & Rev 4:1-2

2 Cr 12:4-5 How that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter. Rev 10:4 Of such an one will I glory: yet of myself I will not glory, but in mine infirmities.

Is there a good reason it could not be John?

 

[tonychanyt]

Isn't this who Paul is referring to when he said, he knew a man was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter (as shown in John)

Rev 10:4 when the seven thunders had uttered their voices, I was about to write: and I heard a voice from heaven saying unto me,
Seal up those things which the Seven thunders uttered, and write them not.

Since he also said,

2 Cr 12:4 How that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter

Couldn't John be the one Paul was depicting as the man he knew above fourteen years ago who was that man caught up to the third heaven
and who was "in the Spirit in the Lords day" so Paul could not say (as far as it pertained to him) whether that was in the body or out of it 2 Cr 12:2 & Rev 1:10 & Rev 4:1 (since it doesn't say there either).

Since the Scripture shows it was John who had come up hither being the man which wrote of the things he saw and heard but when he had heard what the Seven thunders uttered (and was about to write) he was also the one commanded to seal those things uttered up and not write them down. And since that command was issued to John specifically, is it unreasonable to believe Paul understood this man who he wrote about was not himself but John rather? Wouldn't that be to whom Paul was referring to when speaking of the one who heard unspeakable words which is not lawful for a man to utter.

2 Cr 12:2-3 I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell:
God knoweth such an one caught up to the third heaven. Rev 1:10, Rev 4:1-2 And I knew such a man, (whether in the body, or out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth Rev 1:10, & Rev 4:1-2

2 Cr 12:4-5 How that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter. Rev 10:4 Of such an one will I glory: yet of myself I will not glory, but in mine infirmities.

Is there a good reason it could not be John?

See Who was caught up to the third heaven?

 

[Fireinfolding]

See Who was caught up to the third heaven?

I did, I replied already, I have read what other people say but I have never been convinced by them on this.

 

[rdclmn72]

In the garden God would visit Adam and Eve. When the new Jerusalem descends, Paradise will, inside of Jerusalem once again be where God will commune with man. In both cases, Paradise is wherever God communes with mankind.