Interesting, according to the Bible 3 people do constitute a marriage.
Well, I'm afraid that, in the context of your overall argument (I.e. that what the bible says doesn't matter in the question of what the state should define as marriage), you can't even object to my argument by saying ''according to the Bible 3 people do constitute a marriage.'' What you cut off on one hand can't be used by the other. I'll respond to the illogical use of the Bible at the end of the post, but since it's not a part of my argument, I'll go back to objective principles.
hmmm...so (if I'm reading the above right) marriage never changes, in all cultures and in all societies marriage has only ever been 1 man and 1 wife....except well the Bible doesn't say that does it? So the Book that all Christians are supposed to believe in, what's considered a marriage has changed quite a bit over the years. Here's the problem I've having here: marriage should be about two adults joining together with the one they love. And they shouldn't have to have other peoples permission to do so. You don't like the idea? That's your problem I'm just not sure you not liking something is justification for other people to not have the right you have: you get to marry the person you love and they can't.

tulc(is enjoying the recent snow here in Chicago!)
You can go on your rants, but, if you noticed, I didn't mention the bible in my argument at all; but you have. Hence, it would seem, paradoxically, that you want the law to be based on your reading of the Bible, while I think it should be based on objective principles.
Since you decided not to think at all, and instead responded with clap-trap about what I like and don't like, I'll have to re-state certain parts of my argument by asking a few questions:
I asked you to defend the redefinition (that marriage is between two consenting adults), by telling me how a non-sexual friendship between two people does not constitute a marriage. What is ontologically dissimilar between two men in a sexual relationship, and, say, if you and I, a 23-year-old continent who will perpetually stay that way were to declare that we are married? Under the re-definition, sex is meaningless in the relationship - hence there is no principle of consummation; so I wouldn't necessarily be violating my vows, would I? I realize you don't love me - and the sentiment is returned - but then, that's never been a reason for the state subsidizing marriage; so that's also no objection. So tell me, then:
1) How is a non-sexual friendship between two adults (or even two children, since sex isn't necessary in marriage under the redefinition), different than a married couple (either homo or heterosexual)?
2) If marriage is not related to sexuality (of any type) under the re-definition, then how does marriage expanded to two men or women of the same sex constitute raising their sexuality from 2nd-class status?
I'd also like to point out the irony in telling a celibate that he has the right to marry. What Ramiel has been saying is true, though, everyone in an individual state has the same right to marry as everyone else; it's only a question of the definition. If I live in Iowa, I can get married to any consenting man or woman; if I live in Nebraska, I can get married to any consenting woman - in both cases, the possibilities that are open to me are the same whether I am homo or heterosexual. In fact, under the re-definition, unless you can show me how non-sexual friendships ontologically differ, I'm free to get married to another man without necessary being suspected of violating my continence.
Regarding the Bible: it is a complex book, and it describes many different cultures. Everyone's who is not an evangelical knows that revelation occurs in a contexualized situation (hence, God is depicted as ordering a genocide in 1 Samuel). Ironically, appealing to the bible doesn't help your argument fort the simple reason that - while polygamy was practiced in the Mesopotamean region - never was polyandromy (and still, as far as I know, this is the case). That is because the objective ends of sexuality (which are obvious) were still the basis for marriage. Over time, the reality that our fundamental make-up involves thee bonding hormones to attach themselves to one person came tho dominate - but that too, is based on an objective reality.
I'd also like to point out that I did not say that all cultures have always defined marriage between one man and one woman, but they have always acknowledged the objective ends of marriage as being based on those of sexuality - hence even in Greece, where homosexuality was largely accepted, there was not same-sex marriage (see Plato's Protagoras, and the Elusinian Mysteries).
Anyways, if you answer my two questions, then I will be happy.