How about we just agree that Hagar could have been Abram's wife so we don't have little bits and pieces of items to argue?
This point is not relevant and is only an argument that you think you own for proof that I am wrong. However, the "narrative voice" used does not mean it is truth! No where else does the Bible say that she was accepted as "wife," and the Bible even says later that she was Abram's slave, but she was never, at any time, recognized as his wife. She was given to be a wife, but was she? Is every woman a man has sex with his wife? I would still contend that something given is not necessarily taken. And the fact is, God gives salvation to the entire world. But not all the world accepts it. Sarai could "give" Abram Hagar as wife, but if he didn't accept her, then he didn't consider her his wife just like if a person doesn't consider salvation as their own, they are not saved. If he didn't consider her his wife, she wasn't. And then we have the Bible which tells us in 2 Corinthians 13:1 “Every matter must be established by the testimony of two or three witnesses.” This is not the only scripture that says "two or three witnesses." I just don't see another witness for this that you say is truth. Therefore, I find it hard to believe that Abram took her to be his wife. I think he just used her, and that will always be my view of this.
However, it matters little if Hagar was his wife or not because, when we look at the result, we see a lot of misery for Abraham's son, Isaac, that Abram listened to his wife's suggestion and took Hagar. (It might even suggest that, when a man chooses to not wait for the Lord to provide him an heir, he is making a huge mistake--both in not waiting and taking a second wife.) We would have to at least consider that the end result indicates that it wasn't God's perfect will. We might also suggest that, by going outside of God's will for him, Sarai caused her and Abram's descendants (from God's perfect will) all kinds of permanent trouble as we see in the middle East today and have seen for thousands of years.
And then, we see from Abram the extreme marital trouble it caused Abram to take a second wife. Genesis 16: 5 Then Sarai said to Abram, “You are responsible for the wrong I am suffering. I put my slave in your arms, and now that she knows she is pregnant, she despises me. May the LORD judge between you and me.” This trouble was so great that he actually gave his unborn son to his wife, Sarai, to do as she wished with the mother and baby! So it could be suggested that the marital contention in adding a second woman to his life was unbearable for him.
I also find it interesting to note that Sarai means "contentious" and Sarah means "princess." When she gave Hagar, even her name meant trouble.
We might also agree that, when the Bible says, "Wait for the Lord," (Ps 27. 14) He really means wait and not take matters into your own hands. Abram did not wait. And he got generations of trouble.
Should we also admit that when a man doesn't wait, he is sinning? After all, the Word says "wait." And we would have to conclude that taking a second wife to have a male heir is not waiting, so we'd have to admit that he is sinning right there by not waiting. We see from Abram's production, a great deal of misery came into the world. And in fact, Isaac doesn't even possess Jerusalem now--his other sons' families possess it. And they are being quite selfish with it I might add. More trouble.
And we might also agree that it wasn't God's perfect will because God's perfect will isn't going to cause us trouble. (That's actually comical. How in any one's any view would God's perfect will cause us trouble?)
And we would want to agree that Abram was still not completed and able to receive a son (which happened after he was renamed and after circumcision). So Abram didn't wait for God's perfect will indicating that he prematurely acted outside of God's will to bring blessing on himself (which actually ended up in cursing for many in the world for centuries).
We also would want to agree that Abram was not the beginning. Adam was. And the second Adam said it wasn't that way from the beginning which ultimately is the greatest point--Jesus is the greatest of all.
Then, once we agree to the above, we can also agree that, when Jesus said, "It was not that way from the beginning..." (Matthew 19) that Jesus meant that it was God's intention for each man to have one wife.
We might then suggest that, sin entered into the world, and man's desire to have something over God's giving it resulted in men taking more than one wife which was not intended from the beginning which we can see when we see that, in the beginning, God gave Adam one wife (and never gave him another).
Then we might add that Cain, the one who killed his brother and committed the first murder and who was sent away, produced:
Genesis 4:
17 Cain made love to his wife, and she became pregnant and gave birth to Enoch. Cain was then building a city, and he named it after his son Enoch. 18 To Enoch was born Irad, and Irad was the father of Mehujael, and Mehujael was the father of Methushael, and Methushael was the father of Lamech. 19 Lamech married two women
a great, great, great grandson who was the first to marry two women. This was such a strange thing that it was noted in the Bible.
We might also note that none of the other lines coming down from Seth (or the other children) did this for many generations until they saw the sin of Lamech, and they decided it was permitted (not perfect). They also made another edict that, if a man's wife (who was at fault--a wrong conclusion) did not produce him a son, then that man had the "right" (a wrong conclusion) to take another woman (which was his intent anyway because of the sin of lust) so that he could have a son even if God didn't intend for him to have a son. Psalm 127:3 say: "Sons are a heritage from the LORD, children a reward from him." So when God didn't bless a man with sons (God's perfect will), then man took it upon himself to "bless" himself (a wrong conclusion (that he should bless himself) and a wrong choice) with a second wife who could "bless" him with a son.
Of course, now we understand from science that it is a man's seed (I will use "seed" to continue holding a G rating) that makes the baby either male or female. So all along, it is the man that determined the sex of the baby. So logically, it should have been the woman's perogative to find another man instead of the other way around. But since it is inherent in some men's natures to find more than one woman and not nearly so predominant in a woman's nature, men found other women and blamed it on women that they had to have other women--another wrong conclusion and another wrong choice.
So it was God's intention to bless a man with one wife in the beginning, but it was man's intention to "bless" himself with more than one wife once he saw he could get away with it. And if he could blame the woman once again for his being forced to do what he wanted to do i.e. "bless" himself outside of God's perfect will, then he had all the more reason to justify it and do it.
Of course, it was this way from the beginning (that man blamed women for his sin) when Adam said, in Genesis 3: 12 The woman you put here with me—she gave me some fruit from the tree, and I ate it” which blamed Eve for the man's sin. (Please note that he could have just said, "Yes, Lord, I ate of the forbidden fruit." But he didn't. So did she shove it down his throat? No, he took it from her hand, and he ate it by his own will.) However, from the beginning, Eve brought evil upon all womankind by being unfaithful to her God and having her leader be unfaithful to her. But it wasn't intended that way from the beginning; however, she chose a way which was not God's perfect will which opened the door to man often accusing the woman and not taking responsibility for his part in what happens.
So then, some men thought that, if one didn't work, and the second wasn't making him fulfilled, he needed to "bless" himself with numerous and more and more and more wives. So his greed was the cause of having many wives.
I don't see a single place in the Bible where God says that He will bless a man with more than one wife. God does say, in Proverbs 18:22 "He who finds a wife finds what is good and receives favor from the LORD." This singular use does not mean two or three or more but rather it is one. (Isn't it interesting that Solomon, who might have had more wives and concubines that any man on earth and the wisest man that ever lived was the one who said this?) So does God really mean that when a man finds more than one wife, he finds more than one good and more than one favor? No, it means man is trying to bless himself, and that is never good, and that is never favor. Who ever creates his own favor from God?
And then there's the problem of unanswered favor and acceptance from the Lord. Malachi 2: 13 Another thing you do: You flood the LORD’s altar with tears. You weep and wail because he no longer looks with favor on your offerings or accepts them with pleasure from your hands. 14 You ask, “Why?” It is because the LORD is the witness between you and the wife of your youth. You have been unfaithful to her, though she is your partner, the wife of your marriage covenant.
Each of us should note that this states that the Lord is the witness between "you and the wife of your youth" and that this does not say "wives" of your youth. So what Is God saying that a man should have one wife? Novel thought, eh? (Or is your response only--So what?) And since the "wife" (singular) is the wife of your marriage covenant, would anyone agree that the covenant is with many more (or even any more) than the first? Not according to this scripture. Do you think that Sarai understood this and that she cursed Abram tremendously when she said it was his fault? Wow. What a concept!
And, we might add, even when science proves that man is at fault (for producing a female child because it is his seed that determines the sex of a child) and doesn't deserve to take another wife (and should wait for God's blessing), some males just goes on about the way it was in the past, and those males forget the purpose of "taking a second wife" (which was for producing a male heir). This was the purpose for men to take a second wife in the past.
Totally in denial of God's perfect will and totally forgetting that man started blessing himself with a woman who would produce him an heir (which both were not God's will), man starts taking another wife (and another and another and another) just because of his own lust. He doesn't remember that the rule that was set up after man started blessing himself was that he could take a second wife only when the first didn't produce a male (which was the purpose of a man taking a second wife in the first place). No, he doesn't remember that. Since man is singularly visioned, he can only see that others did it and didn't get punished for it, so it must be God's perfect will.
To think that God intends a man to have more than one wife is folly.
Mere folly.