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One baptism

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Iosias

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In the second chapter of the Acts we get the fulfilment of the second great event. The Holy Ghost was received on earth according to that word in John 7: 39, which connects His coming with the glory of Christ. The disciples were "all together in one place" waiting, according to the Lord's word, for the baptism of the Holy Spirit. While they waited, the Holy Spirit came "from Heaven" and filled all the house where they were sitting; and not only so, but each individual was filled with the Holy Spirit. Thus by one Spirit they were "all baptized into one Body" (1 Cor. 12: 13). Here, then, the "one Body" became an actual fact: that Body of which Christ is the Head in Heaven, and believers, the members on earth. The fact was not yet revealed, and could hardly be, as the Body is composed of Jewish and Gentile believers and therefore the revelation of the truth was not given until the Gentile believers had been baptized into the Body by the Holy Spirit. (See Acts 10; 11: 16.)

Following upon the baptism of the Spirit, a great number of Jews and proselytes were convicted, believed in Christ, were baptized, received the forgiveness of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit. Further, we read, "the same day there were added about three thousand souls" (v. 41). Then the last verse of the chapter tells us who added them and to what they were added. It was the Lord Himself who added them, and it was to the Church they were added.

Coming now to the third chapter of Ephesians, we have the Church presented in connection with the administration of Paul. The whole chapter is a parenthesis. Ephesians 2 presents the doctrine of the Church; Ephesians 4, the practical exhortations based upon the doctrine. Between the doctrine and the exhortations we have this important digression in which the Holy Spirit presents the special administration, or service, committed to Paul in connection with the truth of the Church. We are then informed by what means the apostle acquired his knowledge of the truth of the mystery. It was not through communications from men, but by a direct revelation from God: "By revelation He made known unto me the mystery." This meets a great difficulty that arises in connection with the truth of the mystery. When Paul preached the Gospel in the Jewish synagogues, he invariably appealed to the Scriptures (see Acts 13: 27, 29, 32, 35, 47; Acts 17: 2), and the Jews of Berea are expressly commended inasmuch as they searched the Scriptures to see if the word preached by Paul was in accord with it. But when the apostle ministered the truth of the Church, he could no longer appeal to the Old Testament for confirmation. It would be useless for his hearers to search the Scriptures to see if these things were so.

What then is this mystery? We are plainly told in verse 6 that this new revelation is that the Gentiles "should be joint heirs, and a joint Body and joint partakers of (His) promise in Christ Jesus by the glad tidings" (N. Tr.). The Gentiles are made joint heirs with the Jews, not in Christ's earthly kingdom, but in that far greater inheritance described in Ephesians 1 which includes both things in Heaven and things on earth. And more, the Gentile believers are formed with Jewish believers into a joint Body of which Christ is the Head in Heaven.

From the midst of a world of apostate Jews and godless Gentiles, God calls out a great company of quickened souls, redeemed by blood, and forgiven according to the riches of His grace; and not only calls them out of a ruined world but unites them in one Body with Christ their Head in Heaven. They are not of the world from which Christ has been rejected, even as He is not of the world (John 17: 16), but they belong to Heaven where Christ is seated, their risen and exalted Head. Moreover they will be associated with Christ in His glorious inheritance when He will have dominion over the whole created universe of God, whether they be things in Heaven or things on earth.

Such then is this great mystery, in other ages not made known unto the sons of men, but now revealed unto His holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit, and ministered to us through the apostle Paul. For of this great truth, as the apostle tells us, he was made a minister (v. 7). It is not that it was not revealed to the other apostles—Paul tells us that it was — but to him was committed the special service of ministering this truth to the saints. Hence only in the epistles of Paul do we find any unfolding of the mystery.

We read in Colossians 1: 18, that Christ "is the Head of the Body, the Church," and again in 1 Corinthians 12: 12, 13, that "as the Body is one, and hath many members, and all the members of that one Body, being many, are one Body, so also is Christ. For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one Body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit." From these Scriptures it is plain that all believers are formed into one Body by the Holy Spirit on earth with one Head in Heaven. We have seen that men were introduced by baptism with water into the Christian profession which forms the House of God on earth. It is clear, however, that no baptism by water can bring people into the Body of Christ. This can only be effected by the baptism of the Holy Spirit.

During the time of Christ's absence, Jewish and Gentile believers have been formed into one Body, by the Holy Spirit, in order that Christ characteristically may be reproduced in His Body—that all that He did in perfection in His body when here—pastoring, teaching, preaching and blessing—may be continued in His spiritual Body now that He is gone. This baptism of the Holy Ghost took place in connection with Jewish believers at Pentecost (see Acts 1: 5; Acts 2: 1-4); and in reference to Gentile believers at the call of Cornelius and his friends (Acts 10: 44; Acts 11: 15-17). The baptism of the Spirit involves the setting aside of all that is after the flesh. Natural distinctions, such as Jew or Gentile, and social positions, such as bond or free, have no place in the one Body. We cannot think of ourselves as Jews or Gentiles, or according to any other fleshly distinction, for "by one Spirit are we all baptized into one Body." All forming the one Body have been "made to drink of one Spirit." We enjoy the same blessings and privileges, for this enjoyment springs from one source—the Holy Spirit.

excerpts from: http://www.biblecentre.org/topics02ff/topics_hs_church_short_papers.htm#8.%20The%20Church%20as%20the%20Body%20of%20Christ
 

Terral

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Hi AV:
AV >> One baptism: In the second chapter of the Acts we get the fulfillment of the second great event. The Holy Ghost was received on earth according to that word in John 7:39, which connects His coming with the glory of Christ.

The Holy Spirit was simply sent back from heaven, after delivering Christ to the right hand of God. This is the same “Holy Spirit” of the Temple spoken of by David:
“Do not cast me away from Your presence And do not take Your Holy Spirit from me.” Psalm 51:11.

The ‘Spirit’ of God is represented in Scripture from Genesis 1:2 to Rev. 22:17. He incarnated as Melchizedek king of Salem (Gen. 14:18, Heb. 7:1-17) to Abraham and was passed from John the Baptist to Christ in Matthew 3:16. The fact that He is now being passed to the Twelve at Pentecost shows that the kingdom was then being offered for the third and final time. This event that occurs at Pentecost does not happen in a vacuum, but is part of the offering of the kingdom that started with John the Baptist (Mark 1:4, Acts 1:5). Peter is still fulfilling Prophecy in Acts 2, as evidenced by his quoting Joel (Joel 2:28-32) in Acts 2:17-21.
AV >> The disciples were "all together in one place" waiting, according to the Lord's word, for the baptism of the Holy Spirit. While they waited, the Holy Spirit came "from Heaven" and filled all the house where they were sitting; and not only so, but each individual was filled with the Holy Spirit. Thus by one Spirit they were "all baptized into one Body" (1 Cor. 12:13).

No, no, no. Paul is describing the ‘one baptism’ (Eph. 4:5) for the members of the ‘body of Christ’ (Eph. 4:12) to the Corinthians as “Christ’s body.” 1Cor. 12:27. The members of the body of Christ are obedient to Paul’s ‘my gospel’ (Rom. 2:16) which is “Christ and Him crucified.” 1Cor. 2:2. They are redeemed through Christ’s shed blood. Eph. 1:7. Is that was Peter preached in Acts 2? NO! Peter is still preaching the same repentance and baptism ‘for the forgiveness of sins’ (Acts 2:38), as John the Baptist preached from the beginning. Mark 1:4. Paul calls the ‘gospel I preach among the Gentiles’ (Gal. 2:2) the ‘gospel to the UNCIRCUMCISED.’ Gal. 2:7. The hearers of Peter’s ‘gospel of the kingdom’ (Matt. 24:14) in Acts 2 were ALL JEWS. Acts 2:14, 22, 36. Are you prepared to prove that Paul’s ‘gospel to the UNCIRCUMCISED’ was being preached by Peter to Jews in Acts 2? Peter and the Twelve are called the ‘sons of the bridal chamber.’ Mark 2:19. They are gathering the members of the ‘bride’ (John 3:29) of PROPHECY. Hosea 2:19+20. None of the prophets saw that Christ would also have a ‘body of Christ.’ That is why this ‘mystery is great.’ Eph. 5:32. You are mixing together the elemental precepts of doctrine for the Kingdom Bride under Peter, and the Grace Body under Paul.
AV >> Here, then, the "one Body" became an actual fact: that Body of which Christ is the Head in Heaven, and believers, the members on earth.

If Peter were a member of our ‘body of Christ,’ then he would not be preaching repentance so that Christ would return to the earth (Acts 3:19-21). If Peter was preaching Paul’s ‘my gospel’ (Rom. 16:25), then Christ had no reason to sent Paul to submit it to him twenty years later (Gal. 2:1-9 (2)). You have Peter preaching Paul’s gospel and adding members to the ‘body of Christ’ seven chapters before our gospel could even be revealed to Paul. “Rightly Dividing” the word of truth does not mean to mix it all together to take out what tastes good. We must separate the precepts of doctrine that applies to the kingdom bride from the grace body.
AV >> The fact was not yet revealed, and could hardly be, as the Body is composed of Jewish and Gentile believers and therefore the revelation of the truth was not given until the Gentile believers had been baptized into the Body by the Holy Spirit. (See Acts 10; 11: 16.)

No sir. The bride also has Jewish and Gentile members. That is why the ‘gospel of the kingdom’ goes to the whole world. Matt. 24:14, Matt. 28:19+20, Acts 1:8. What Peter is doing is Acts 2 WAS seen by the Prophets. What Paul is doing throughout his Epistles was NOT. Count the baptisms of Acts 8:12-17 and 19:1-6. You will find three kingdom baptisms of the Father (John’s; Acts 8:12, 19:3) and of the Son (in the name of the Lord Jesus; Acts 8:12, 19:5), and of the Holy Spirit (laying of hands; Acts 8:17, 19:6). Paul is describing the ‘one baptism’ (Eph. 4:5) for us in 1Cor. 12:13 when we are ‘sealed in Him’ (Eph. 1:13) by the Holy Spirit. Eph. 4:30.

In Christ,

Terral
 
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Iosias

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Terral said:
If Peter were a member of our ‘body of Christ,’ then he would not be preaching repentance so that Christ would return to the earth (Acts 3:19-21).
This is, I believe, the beginning of our disagreement. As you know I did shift to a Mid-Acts position for a short while however I cannot see an offer of the kingdom in Acts 3. This is Peter telling Israel what it must do, it is not an offer.
 
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Terral

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AV:
AV >> This is, I believe, the beginning of our disagreement. As you know I did shift to a Mid-Acts position for a short while however I cannot see an offer of the kingdom in Acts 3. This is Peter telling Israel what it must do, it is not an offer.

Your position here has become a stone of stumbling about this and other truths relating to the Kingdom church under Peter, and the Gracechurch under Paul. What is the ‘offer’ business about? God is gathering members to the Prophetic ‘bride’ (John 3:29) under Peter and the ‘gospel of the kingdom’ (Matt. 24:14) and members to the Mystery ‘body’ (Eph. 5:30) under Paul and the ‘gospel of the grace of God’ (Acts 20:24). Philip is preaching the ‘good news concerning the Kingdom of God’ (Acts 8:12) in Acts 8 to the Samaritans. Peter is preaching the gospel of the kingdom to Cornelius in Acts 10. Paul is completing the three baptism process for the kingdom ‘disciples’ (Acts 19:1) in Acts 19:1-6. The ‘kingdom’ is being preached throughout the Book of Acts, whether you wish to acknowledge the truth or not. Luke is writing this sequel to the ‘Gospel of Luke’ to Theophilus (Luke 1:3, Acts 1:1) about the ‘kingdom of God.’ Acts 1:3, 28:31. This is why it was fitting to stop the letter just after showing the Paul had turned exclusively to the Gentiles in Acts 28:28.

Let us not give Luke’s accounting of the kingdom of God to Theophilus and broader scope and purpose than originally intended by the author of the work. That is to give this part of Scripture a foreign context than intended by the Spirit of God who expects us to interpret accordingly. Stopping the offer of the kingdom in Acts 3 is just not according to any kind of sound Biblical reasoning at all. Those to whom Paul had been ‘preaching the kingdom’ (Acts 20:25) were about to see his face no more. How can that be if there is no preaching of the kingdom beyond Acts 3? I am trying to relate your position to any of the Dispensationalists I have read from history, and your interpretation appears to be foreign to any of them. Perhaps if you would write longer posts about your revelations on these matters, I could begin to piece together more of this jigsaw puzzle you are trying to describe. For some strange reason you wish to start our ‘dispensation of God’s grace’ (Eph. 3:2) seven chapters before the conversion of the steward to which it was given. Then you want to cancel out any offering of the kingdom after Acts 2 at the same time. Even a casual reading of Acts proves beyond all doubt that there is something seriously wrong with that interpretation.

In Christ,

Terral
 
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Terral said:
For some strange reason you wish to start our ‘dispensation of God’s grace’ (Eph. 3:2) seven chapters before the conversion of the steward to which it was given. Then you want to cancel out any offering of the kingdom after Acts 2 at the same time.
I wish to do no such thing!! What I wish to do is find the truth in Scripture, let it interpret itself rather than read things into it. I can find not one jot of Scriptural evidence that supports the claim that the kingdom was reoffered in Acts. :)
 
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Terral

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Brethren:
Brethren >> I wish to do no such thing!! What I wish to do is find the truth in Scripture, let it interpret itself rather than read things into it. I can find not one jot of Scriptural evidence that supports the claim that the kingdom was reoffered in Acts.

Then you are not looking with any ambition whatsoever. What is a ‘reoffer’? What does that mean? We have the ‘gospel of the kingdom’ being preached in Matthew 4:23, 9:35. Christ said that this ‘gospel of the kingdom’ will go to all the nations. Matt. 24:14.
“But when they believed Philip preaching the good news about the kingdom of God and the name of Jesus Christ, they were being baptized, men and women alike.” Acts 8:12.
What is Philip doing here? Starting a Crispy Crème Donut Franchise? Was the kingdom church growing or shrinking at this time?
“So the church throughout all Judea and Galilee and Samaria enjoyed peace, being built up; and going on in the fear of the Lord and in the comfort of the Holy Spirit, it continued to increase.” Acts 9:31.
How is the church growing and increasing if the gospel of the kingdom is not being offered? What you are saying makes no sense at all, Brethren. Have you dislocated the concept of the offering of the kingdom from the ‘gospel of the kingdom’ through which the kingdom church is being gathered? Because, even Paul is ‘preaching the kingdom’ (Acts 20:25) throughout Acts. And you cannot find one jot of Scripture showing that the kingdom is even being offered? I can provide several examples, but can do nothing if you need new glasses partner. Perhaps you have accepted some form of false teaching that turns everything else in Scripture on its head. 2Thes. 2:10-12. Hopefully we are not dealing with that sort of problem.

In Christ,

Terral
 
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Terral

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Providence, BrethrenInChrist,
Providence >> There is a huge difference between the kingdom of heaven and the kingdom of God!

BrethrenInChrist >> agreed if one looks at the differences.

For the purposes of the preaching of the kingdom to Israel, the ‘kingdom of heaven’ and the ‘kingdom of God’ are one and the same thing. Matthew uses the phrase “kingdom of heaven” while Mark uses the phrase “kingdom of God” for the same exact preaching of Jesus.
“From that time Jesus began to preach and say, "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand" . . . Jesus was going throughout all Galilee, teaching in their synagogues and proclaiming the gospel of the kingdom, and healing every kind of disease and every kind of sickness among the people.” Matt. 4:17+23.

“Now after John had been taken into custody, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of God, and saying, "The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand; repent and believe in the gospel." Mark 1:14+15.

While we can split hairs and prove that the ‘kingdom of heaven’ is a microcosm of and parenthetical to the ‘kingdom of God,’ the offering of the Kingdom to Israel made the convert a disciple of ‘both.’ Since Scripture is drawing a comparison in the preaching of Christ in Matthew and Mark, I believe it responsible for us to do the same thing. After all, let’s not pretend to know more than Scripture is willing to teach.

In Christ,

Terral
 
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Terral said:
Providence, BrethrenInChrist,

For the purposes of the preaching of the kingdom to Israel, the ‘kingdom of heaven’ and the ‘kingdom of God’ are one and the same thing. Matthew uses the phrase “kingdom of heaven” while Mark uses the phrase “kingdom of God” for the same exact preaching of Jesus.

While we can split hairs and prove that the ‘kingdom of heaven’ is a microcosm of and parenthetical to the ‘kingdom of God,’ the offering of the Kingdom to Israel made the convert a disciple of ‘both.’ Since Scripture is drawing a comparison in the preaching of Christ in Matthew and Mark, I believe it responsible for us to do the same thing. After all, let’s not pretend to know more than Scripture is willing to teach.

In Christ,

Terral
Interesting


Matt 19:23Then said Jesus unto His disciples, Verily I say unto you, That a rich man shall hardly enter into the kingdom of heaven. 24 And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle , than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God

Here we have scripture that talks about the two different words yet you say they are the same

one it is possible to get there
second it is impossible with out God

Luke 17:20b The kingdom of God cometh not with observation 21 Neither shall they say, Lo here! or, lo there! for, behold, the kingdom of God is within you.

How do I get God inside of me?



John 3:18 He that believeth on Him is not condemned: But he that believeth not is condemned already,because he hath not believed in the name of the only unique kind of Son of God

Romans 8:9 b if any man have not the Spirit from Christ, he is none of His

1 cor 6:19 What? know ye not that your body is the temple of the Holy Spirit which is in you, which ye have of God, and ye are not your own?


Ok but the kingdom of the heavens has wheat and tares in Matt 13:24-25 yet in Matt 6:38 it defines what the wheat and the tares are...

How can son of satan be in the kindom of God when that requires God inside of them
 
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Terral

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BrethrenInChrist
Brethren >> How can son of satan be in the kindom of God when that requires God inside of them

The point of your post is vague and asks too many questions. Please try again when you have some answers. My points remain that clearly show Christ preaching the ‘kingdom of heaven’ (Matt. 4:17) and the ‘kingdom of God’ (Mark 1:15) being ‘at hand.’ Scripture and Christ Himself are using the phrases interchangeably, which gives us license to do the same thing.

In Christ,

Terral
 
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Terral said:
BrethrenInChrist

The point of your post is vague and asks too many questions. Please try again when you have some answers. My points remain that clearly show Christ preaching the ‘kingdom of heaven’ (Matt. 4:17) and the ‘kingdom of God’ (Mark 1:15) being ‘at hand.’ Scripture and Christ Himself are using the phrases interchangeably, which gives us license to do the same thing.

In Christ,

Terral
they do not

I did question with answers
 
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A Brethren IN CHRIST said:
Interesting


Matt 19:23Then said Jesus unto His disciples, Verily I say unto you, That a rich man shall hardly enter into the kingdom of heaven. 24 And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle , than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God
Here we have scripture that talks about the two different words yet you say they are the same

kingdomof heaven it is possible to get there
kingdom of God it is impossible with out God

Luke 17:20b The kingdom of God cometh not with observation 21 Neither shall they say, Lo here! or, lo there! for, behold, the kingdom of God is within you.
How do I get God inside of me?



John 3:18 He that believeth on Him is not condemned: But he that believeth not is condemned already,because he hath not believed in the name of the only unique kind of Son of God

Romans 8:9 b if any man have not the Spirit from Christ, he is none of His

1 cor 6:19 What? know ye not that your body is the temple of the Holy Spirit which is in you, which ye have of God, and ye are not your own?
Ok but the kingdom of the heavens has wheat and tares in Matt 13:24-25 yet in Matt 6:38 it defines what the wheat and the tares are...

How can son of satan be in the kindom of God when that requires God inside of them
I defined kingdom of God

and then showed how the two different kingdom are different
 
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